IP adress

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Subnetting in 6 easy steps - part 1

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Cisco Training CCNA IP Addressing - Part 1 of 5

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CCNA WAN Questions

Here you will find answers to WAN Questions 

Question 1:

The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command?

A: This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.

B: The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.

C: 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.

D: This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.

E: The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.

Correct Answers: E

Explanation:
The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast means to mapping the distal IP 10.121.16.8 102 to the local DLCI 102. When the "broadcast" keyword is included, it turns Frame Relay network as a broadcast network, which can forward broadcasts

Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes DLCI 17?

A: DLCI 17 describes the ISDN circuit between R2 and R3.

B: DLCI 17 describes a PVC on R2. It cannot be used on R3 or R1.

C: DLCI 17 is the Layer 2 address used by R2 to describe a PVC to R3.

D: DLCI 17 describes the dial-up circuit from R2 and R3 to the service provider.

Correct Answers: C

Explanation:

DLCI stands for Data Link Connection Identifier. DLCI values are used on Frame Relay interfaces to distinguish between different virtual circuits. DLCIs have local significance because the identifier references the point between the local router and the local Frame Relay switch to which the DLCI is connected.

Question 3:

A default Frame Relay WAN is classified as what type of physical network?
A: point-to-point
B: broadcast multi-access
C: nonbroadcast multi-access
D: nonbroadcast multipoint
E: broadcast point-to-multipoint

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Non-Broadcast Multi-Access (NBMA) networks are types such as Frame Relay, X.25, and Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM). These networks allow for multi-access, but have no broadcast ability like Ethernet

Question 4:

Which of the following are key characteristics of PPP? (Choose three.)
A: can be used over analog circuits
B: maps Layer 2 to Layer 3 address
C: encapsulates several routed protocols
D: supports IP only
E: provides error correction

Correct Answers: A C E

Explanation:

No more explanation needed, below is some more information about PPP:
PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) allows authentication such as Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) and Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) and multilink connections (allow several separate physical paths to appear to be one logical path at layer 3) and can be run over asynchronous and synchronous links.

Question 5:

Which three Layer 2 encapsulation types would be used on a WAN rather than a LAN? (Choose three)
A: HDLC
B: Ethernet
C: Token Ring
D: PPP
E: FDDI
F: Frame Relay

Correct Answer: A D F

Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the term dynamic as displayed in the output of the show frame-relay map command shown?

A: The Serial0/0 interface is passing traffic.
B: The DLCI 100 was dynamically allocated by the router
C: The Serial0/0 interface acquired the IP address of 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server
D: The DLCI 100 will be dynamically changed as required to adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud
E: The mapping between DLCI 100 and the end station IP address 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP

Correct Answer: E

Explanation:

The term dynamic indicates that the DLCI number and the remote router IP address 172.16.3.1 are learned via the Inverse ARP process.
Inverse ARP is a technique by which dynamic mappings are constructed in a network, allowing a device such as a router to locate the logical network address and associate it with a permanent virtual circuit (PVC).

Question 7:

Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A: A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop
B: A modem terminates a digital local loop
C: A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop
D: A modem terminates an analog local loop
E: A router is commonly considered a DTE device
F: A router is commonly considered a DCE device
Correct Answers: A D E

Explanation:

The idea behind a WAN is to be able to connect two DTE networks together through a DCE network. The network’s DCE device (includes CSU/DSU) provides clocking to the DTE-connected interface (the router’s serial interface).

Question 8:

How should a router that is being used in a Frame Relay network be configured to avoid split horizon issues from preventing routing updates?
A: Configure a separate sub-interface for each PVC with a unique DLCI and subnet assigned to the sub-interface
B: Configure each Frame Relay circuit as a point-to-point line to support multicast and broadcast traffic
C: Configure many sub-interfaces on the same subnet
D: Configure a single sub-interface to establish multiple PVC connections to multiple remote router interfaces
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Look at the figure below:

In the figure, router R1 has two point-to-point subinterfaces. The s0.1 subinterface connects to router R3 and the s0.2 subinterface connects to router R2. Each subinterface is on a different subnet.

Question 9:

What can a network administrator utilize by using PPP Layer 2 encapsulation? (Choose three.)
A: VLAN support
B: compression
C: authentication
D: sliding windows
E: multilink support
F: quality of service

Correct Answers: B C E

Explanation:

Same as question 4

Question 10:

The Frame Relay network in the diagram is not functioning properly. What is the cause of the problem?

A: The Gallant router has the wrong LMI type configured
B: Inverse ARP is providing the wrong PVC information to the Gallant router
C: The S3 interface of the Steele router has been configured with the frame-relay encapsulation ietf command
D: The frame-relay map statement in the Attalla router for the PVC to Steele is not correct
E: The IP address on the serial interface of the Attalla router is configured incorrectly

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

At Attalla router, we find a deleted status but the next map statement indicates an active status, which if for Gallant. Therefore we can deduce the map statement for the PVC from Attalla to Steele is incorrect. Incorrect DLCI assignments that are configured normally shown up as "deleted" in the frame relay maps.

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CCNA2 FINAL2 (new 25/12/08)

1. Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for three routers on a network is displayed. All routers are operational, pings are not blocked on this network, and no default routes are installed. Which two pings will fail? (Choose two.)
from R1 to 172.16.1.1
** from R1 to 192.168.3.1
from R2 to 192.168.1.1
from R2 to 192.168.3.1
** from R3 to 192.168.1.1
172.16.4.0/24


2. A router that uses the RIP routing protocol has an entry for a network in the routing table. It then receives an update with another entry for the same destination network but with a lower hop count. What action will the router take for this new update?
** It will append the update information to the routing table.
It will invalidate the entry for that network in the routing table.
It will replace the existing routing table entry with the new information.
It will ignore the new update.

3. Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets? (Choose two.)
They negotiate correct parameters among neighboring interfaces.
They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery.
They use timers to elect the designated router with the fastest link.
** They are received from all routers on the network and used to determine the complete network topology.
** They are used to maintain neighbor relationships.

4. A network administrator needs to configure a single router to loadbalance the traffic over unequal cost paths. Which routing protocol should the administrator use?
EIGRP
OSPF
RIPv1
** RIPv2

5. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.
** It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
** It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.
It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time.
It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded.

6. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run on one of the devices as shown. Based on this information, which two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)
** The command was run on the router.
ABCD is a non CISCO device.
Layer 3 connectivity between two devices exists.
ABCD supports routing capability.
** ABCD is connected to the Fa0/0 interface of the neighboring device.

7. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2 and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. What can be verified from the output?
R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the S0/0/0 interface.
The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 is 10.1.1.2.
The IP address of the S0/0/1 interface of R2 is 10.3.3.2.
** R2 is connected to the S0/0/1 interface of R3.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
**The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
** Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
** No default route has been configured.

9. Refer to the exhibit. All the routers are properly configured to use the RIP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?
Router A will send the data via the ADE path that is listed in the routing table.
Router A will loadbalance the traffic between ABE and ACE.
** Router A will determine that all paths have equal metric cost.
Router A will send the data through ADE and keep ABE and ACE as the backup paths.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the following command on R1.
R1# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.2What is the result of running this command?
** Traffic for network 192.168.2.0 is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network.
Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.2.0.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server?
** the IP address of the server
the default gateway of host A
the IP address of host A
the default gateway of the server

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPF using the following command:
network 192.168.1.32 0.0.0.31 area 0
Which router interface will participate in OSPF?
FastEthernet 0/0
FastEthernet 0/1
** Serial 0/0/0
Serial 0/0/1

13. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to run RIPv1 and are fully converged. Which routing updates will be received by R3?
updates for 192.168.1.0/24 and 192.168.2.0/24
updates for 172.16.2.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24
** updates for 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24
updates for 172.16.0.0/16

14. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network. What is a possible cause of this problem?
** The routers are configured with different versions of RIP.
R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
The R1 configuration should include the no autosummary command.
The maximum path number has been exceeded.

15. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?
ROM, TFTP server, flash
flash, TFTP server, RAM
** flash, NVRAM, TFTP server
ROM, flash, TFTP server

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
Router1
Router2
Router3
** Router4

17. Which mechanism helps to avoid routing loops by advertising a metric of infinity?
** route poisoning
split horizon
holddown timer
triggered updates

18. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 120?
It is the metric that is calculated by the routing protocol.
It is the value that is used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
** It is the administrative distance of the routing protocol.
It is the holddown time, measured in seconds, before the next update.

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator successfully pings R1 from R3. Next, the administrator runs the show cdp neighbors command on R3. The output of this command is displayed.What are two reasons for the absence of R1 in the output? (Choose two.)
There is a Layer 2 connectivity problem between R1 and R3.
The Fa0/0 interface of R1 is configured with an incorrect IP address.
**The no cdp run command has been run at R1.
**The no cdp enable command has been run at Fa0/1 interface of R3.R1 is powered off.

20. Refer to the exhibit. A device is required to complete the connection between router R1 and the WAN. Which two devices can be used for this? (Choose two.)
** a CSU/DSU device
** a modem
an Ethernet switch
a hub
a bridge

21. In a complex lab test environment, a router has discovered four paths to 192.168.1.0/24 via the use of the RIP routing process. Which route will be installed in the routing table after the discovery of all four paths?
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.110.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/1/0
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/0/0
** R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.100.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/0/1
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/4] via 192.168.101.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/1/1

22. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator accesses router R1 from the console port to configure a newly connected interface. What passwords will the network administrator need to enter to make the connection and the necessary configuration changes?
the Cisco123 password only
the Cisco789 password only
the Cisco001 password only
** the Cisco001 password and the Cisco789 passwords
the Cisco001 password and the Cisco123 passwords

23. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator adds this command to router R1: ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0. What is the result of adding this command?
This route is automatically propagated throughout the network.
The traffic for network 172.16.1.0 is forwarded to network 192.168.2.0.
** A static route is established.
The traffic for all Class C networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.

24. Refer to the exhibit. The router receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.5.79. How will the router handle this packet?
It will forward the packet via the Serial0/0/1 interface.
It will forward the packet via the FastEthernet0/0 interface.
It will forward the packet via the Serial0/0/0 interface.
** It will drop the packet.

25. Which two statements are true about classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
** They can be used for discontiguous subnets.
** They can forward supernet routes in routing updates.
They cannot implement classful routes in routing tables.
They use only a hop count metric.
They do not include the subnet mask in routing updates.

26. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?
1
3
** 4
6

27. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what two ways does EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails? (Choose two.)
It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to reestablish neighbor adjacencies.
** It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.
It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.
It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until the lost route is unknown to the neighbors.
** It automatically forwards traffic to a fallback default route until a successor route is found.

28. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
** 10.0.0.0/8
64.100.0.0/16
128.107.0.0/16
172.16.40.0/24
192.168.1.0/24
** 192.168.2.0/24

29. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50.
** All routes are stable.
** The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
Each route has one feasible successor.

30. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured with default configurations and are running the OSPF routing protocol. The network is fully converged. A host on the 192.168.3.0/24 network is communicating with a host on the 192.168.2.0/24 network. Which path will be used to transmit the data?
The data will be transmitted via R3-R2.
** The data will be transmitted via R3-R1-R2.
The traffic will be loadbalanced between two paths — one via R3-R2, and the other via R3-R1-R2.
The data will be transmitted via R3-R2, and the other path via R3-R1-R2 will be retained as the backup path.

31. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
** A(config)# router rip
A(configrouter)# passiveinterface S0/0
B(config)# router rip
B(configrouter)# network 192.168.25.48
B(configrouter)# network 192.168.25.64
A(config)# router rip
A(configrouter)# no network 192.168.25.32
B(config)# router rip
B(configrouter)# passiveinterface S0/0
A(config)# no router rip

32. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts on the R1 LAN are unable to access the Internet. What is incorrectly configured?
the IP address of the Fa 0/0 interface at R1
the IP address of the S 0/0/1 interface at R2
** the IP address of the S 0/0/0 interface at R1
the subnet mask of the S 0/0/1 interface at R2

33. Refer to the exhibit. A ping from R1 to 10.1.1.2 is successful, but a ping from R1 to 192.168.2.0 fails. What is the cause of this problem?
There is no gateway of last resort at R1.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
** A default route is not configured on R1.
The static route for 192.168.2.0 is incorrectly configured.

34. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the show ip protocol command on R1. What can be determined from the exhibited output?
The router is using RIPv2.
The router is not forwarding routing updates.
The router is receiving updates for both versions of RIP.
** The FastEthernet0/0 interface is down.

35. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, all routes are advertised on all routers, and the network is fully converged. Which path will the data take to travel between 172.16.1.0/24 and 192.168.100.0/24?
It will travel via A, B, and C.
** It will travel via A, F, E, D, and C.
It will travel via A, G, H, and C.
The traffic will be loadbalanced on all paths.

36. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. The network administrator requires that R2 always be the DR and maintain adjacency.Which two configurations can achieve this? (Choose two.)
Change the OSPF area of R2 to a higher value.
Change the router ID for R2 by assigning the IP address 172.16.30.5/24 to the Fa0/0 interface.
** Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of R1 and R3 to 0.
** Configure a loopback interface on R2, with an IP address higher than any IPaddress on the other routers.
Configure R1 and R3 with an IP address whose value is higher than that of R2.

37. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet, and troubleshooting has revealed that this is due to an addressing problem. What is incorrectly configured in this network?
the IP address of the Fa 0/0 interface of R1
the subnet mask of the S 0/0/0 interface of R1
** the IP address of the S 0/0/0 interface of R1
the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R2

38. Refer to the exhibit. All routes are advertised and fully operational on all routers. Which statement is true about the path that the data will take from router A to router B?
** If EIGRP is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, D.
If RIPv1 is used with default configurations, the data will be loadbalanced on all paths.
If EIGRP and OSPF are both used with default configurations, the data will be sent through paths learned by the OSPF protocol.
If RIPv2 is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, D.

39. Refer to the exhibit. The interfaces of all routers are configured for OSPF area 0. R3 can ping R1, but the two routers are unable to establish a neighbor adjacency. What should the network administrator do to troubleshoot this problem?
Check if the interfaces of the routers are enabled.
** Check the hello and dead intervals between the routers.
Check the process ID of both routers.
Check if CDP is enabled on all the routers.

40. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?
R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28.
** Automatic summarization is disabled.
The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1.
A classful routing protocol is being used.

41. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
DRAM loads the bootstrap
RAM stores the operating system
Flash executes diagnostics at bootup
** NVRAM stores the configuration file
ROM stores the backup configuration file
** POST runs diagnostics on hardware modules

42. Which routing protocol by default uses bandwidth and delay to calculate the metric of a route?
RIPv1
RIPv2
OSPF
** EIGRP

43. Two routers need to be configured within a single OSPF area. Which two components need to be configured on both routers to achieve this? (Choose two.)
the same process ID
** the same area ID
** network addresses and wildcard masks
the same router ID
the same loop back address

44. Refer to the exhibit. The networks that are connected to R1 have been summarized for R2 as 192.168.136.0/21. Which packet destination address will R2 forward to R1?
192.168.135.1
**192.168.142.1
192.168.144.1
192.168.128.1

45. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is running RIP with default parameters. R1 has learned four different paths with the same metrics to network 192.168.6.0. Which path or paths will R1 use to forward a packet that is destined to 192.168.6.10?
** the first path that the router learned.
only the first two of the four paths that the router learned.
the last path that the router learned.
all four paths.

46. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
** It connects multiple IP networks.
It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
** It determines the best path to send packets.
It manages the VLAN database.
It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

47. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the routing process for this network?
A packet leaves interface Fa0/0 of R1 with the source MAC address as 000C.3010.9260.
** The packet leaves interface Fa0/0 of R1 with the source MAC address as 000C.3010.9260.
The no shutdown command needs to run on the Fa0/0 interface of R1.
The Fa0/0 interface of R2 could be configured with the IP address 172.16.4.1/24.

48. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has run the show interface command. The output of this command is displayed. What is the first step that is required to make this interface operational?
Switch the cable with a known working cable.
** Issue the no shutdown command on the interface.
Configure the interface as a loopback interface.
Set the encapsulation for the interface.

49. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured properly for a single area OSPF, and R2 has been recently installed in the network. Which set of commands is required to configure a single area OSPF for the networks that are connected to R2?
** R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(configrouter)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(configrouter)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(configrouter)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

R2(config)# router ospf 2
R2(configrouter)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(configrouter)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(configrouter)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 1
R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(configrouter)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(configrouter)# network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 1

50. Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 is run on router R2. What are the two results of this command? (Choose two.)
** A static route will be updated in the routing table.
The traffic from the Internet will be directed to R2.
The traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0/22 will be blocked.
** The route will be specified as the default route for all networks not defined in the routing table.
All the broadcasts will be forwarded via the S0/0/0 interface of R2.

51. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and deencapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
** The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
** The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
** The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

52. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
The routers must elect a designated router.
** The routers must agree on the network type.
** The routers must use the same dead interval.
The routers must exchange link state requests.
The routers must exchange database description packets.

53. Refer to the exhibit. Although both the routers can ping the serial interface of their neighbors, they are unable to ping the Ethernet interfaces of other routers. Which two statements are true for this network? (Choose two.)
The administrative distance has been set to 50 on both routers.
** R2 is learning about network 192.168.1.0.
R1 is learning about network 192.168.2.0.
The network 10.1.1.0 command has not been run on both routers.
** Autosummarization is enabled on both routers.

54. Which two situations require the use of a linkstate protocol? (Choose two.)
** Fast convergence of the network is critical.
** The network is very large.
The network administrator has limited knowledge to configure and troubleshoot routing protocols.The network is a flat network.
The capacity of the router is low.

55. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the displayed output?
EIGRP packets are waiting to be sent to the neighbors.
The adjacencies between the routers are yet to be established.
The IP address 192.168.10.10 is configured at serial interface S0/0/1 of router R2.
** Router R2 is receiving hello packets from a neighbor with the IP address 192.168.10.10 via the R2 S0/0/1 interface.

56. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access the Internet. What is the cause of the problem?
An incorrect IP address is configured between the two routers.
No static route is configured on Router2.
** A routing loop has occurred.
No routing protocol is configured on either of the two routers.

57. Refer to the exhibit. What summarization should R2 use to advertise its LAN networks to R1?
172.16.0.0/24
** 172.16.4.0/22
172.16.4.0/23

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CCNA Practice Certification Exam # 1 - CCNA Exploration: Accessing the WAN (Version 4.0)

1. What are three examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)

	a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices
	a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices
	a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet
	a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer
	a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console
	a protocol that conducts a test of the path through which a packet travels from source to destination

2. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows simplified protocol data units from different OSI model layers. Which three statements are true about the PDUs and the encapsulation process? (Choose three.)

	PDU #1 is a frame.
	PDU #2 is an application layer PDU
	PDU #3 is a segment.
	PDU #4 is a transport layer PDU.
	The order in which these PDUs are created during the encapsulation process is 3, 4, 1, 2.
	The order in which these PDUs are created during the encapsulation process is 2, 1, 4, 3.

3. What are two characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)

	data transport reliability
	best path determination
	establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits
	encapsulation of packets in a data frame with source and destination MAC addresses
	best-effort datagram delivery

4. Refer to the exhibit. What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will be used for connection D on the basis of this configuration on a newly installed router:
RtrA(config)# interface serial0/0/0
RtrA(config-if)# ip address 128.107.0.2 255.255.255.252
RtrA(config-if)# no shutdown

	Ethernet
	Frame Relay
	HDLC
	PPP

5. Which three factors contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN? (Choose three.)

	improper placement of enterprise level servers
	addition of hosts to a physical segment
	replacement of hubs with workgroup switches
	increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications
	creation of new collision domains without first adding network hosts
	migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN

6. A Catalyst switch must be in which VTP mode in order to delete or add VLANs to a management domain?

	client
	server
	domain
	transparent
	designated

7. What creates a loop-free path through a switch network?

	hold-down timers
	poison reverse
	Spanning Tree Protocol
	Time to Live
	Split Horizon Protocol
	Routing Information Protocol

8. Refer to the exhibit. All ports on switch fl-1 are in the Production VLAN and all ports on switch fl-2 are in the Development VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are in the network? (Choose two.)

	one broadcast domain
	three broadcast domains
	three collision domains
	five broadcast domains
	nine collision domains
	ten collision domains

9. Refer to the exhibit. VLAN10 and VLAN20 have been created on SW_1 and SW_2 and switch ports have been assigned to the appropriate VLAN. Workstations in VLAN 10 can ping workstations in VLAN 10 that connect to either switch, but workstations in VLAN 20 cannot ping workstations in VLAN 20 on the opposite switch. Based on the output, what is most likely the problem?

	FA 0/1 on SW_1 needs to be assigned to VLAN 20.
	FA 0/1 on SW_2 needs to be assigned to VLAN 20.
	VTP is not working properly between SW_1 and SW_2.
	Interfaces FA0/1 on SW_1 and SW_2 need to be configured as trunk ports.
	Interfaces FA0/3 on both switches need to be configured as access ports.

10. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output that is shown?

	The management VLAN is VLAN 99.
	The only VLAN that can be applied to switch ports is VLAN 99.
	The only VLANs that can be applied to switch ports are VLANs 1 and 99.
	The switch will only be able to forward frames for hosts on the 10.99.0.0 network.

11. Refer to the exhibit and the following error message from the SwA switch.
00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-RECV_1Q_NON_TRUNK: Received 802.1Q BPDU on non trunk FastEthernet0/1 VLAN1.
00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-BLOCK_PORT_TYPE: Blocking FastEthernet0/1 on VLAN0001. Inconsistent port type.
Considering that the link between the two switches is good and the correct type, what could cause this error message?

	The Spanning Tree Protocol has been disabled on one switch.
	The Spanning Tree Protocol has been disabled on both switches.
	The IEEE 802.1Q trunking port has a speed mismatch on one of the switches.
	The SwA port is configured as a trunk port and the SwB port is configured as an access port.
	The SwA port has IEEE 802.1Q trunking enabled and the SwB port has ISL trunking enabled.

12. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing?

	because there is a cabling problem on VLAN 99
	because VLAN 99 is not a valid management VLAN
	because VLAN 1 is up and there can only be one management VLAN on the switch
	because VLAN 99 needs to be entered as a VLAN under an interface before it can become an active interface
	because the VLAN 99 has not been manually entered into the VLAN database with the vlan 99 command

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which command needs to be used on router interface Fa 0/1 to complete the VLAN configuration?

	RT_1(config)# trunk encapsulation dot1q
	RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10
	RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation negotiate
	RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation 802.1q
	RT_1(config)# vlan encapsulation dot1q

14. Refer to the exhibit. Computer A is configured with an IP address of 192.168.20.5 and cannot ping RT_1. What is most likely the problem?

	SW_1 FastEthernet interface 0/24 is not a trunk port.
	The RT_1 FastEthernet 0/1.10 is not configured for VLANs.
	The FastEthernet port 0/1 on SW_1 is configured for VLAN 20.
	The management VLAN does not have an IP address assigned to the same VLAN.
	The IP address of computer A is incorrect.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which three hosts will receive ARP requests from host A, assuming that port Fa0/4 on both switches is configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs? (Choose three.)

	host B
	host C
	host D
	host E
	host F
	host G

16. Refer to the exhibit. Two VLANs have been configured on the switch and hosts have been assigned. Hosts in the Sales VLAN can ping all hosts in their own VLAN, but cannot ping the hosts in the HR VLAN. What are two explanations for this problem? (Choose two.)

	All hosts are in one collision domain.
	All hosts are in one broadcast domain.
	A router is required for communication between VLANs.
	The hosts are in separate broadcast domains.
	The management VLAN has not been assigned an IP address.

17. Which industry-wide specification was developed to decrease the time that is needed to move to the forwarding state by switch ports that are operating in a redundantly switched topology?

	VLSM
	PVST
	802.1Q
	RSTP
	VTP

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)

	SW1 will become the root bridge.
	SW2 will become the root bridge.
	SW2 will get a port blocked.
	SW4 will get a port blocked.
	SW3 will become the root bridge.
	SW4 will become the root bridge.

19. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

	prevents Layer 2 loops
	prevents routing loops on a router
	creates smaller collision domains
	creates smaller broadcast domains
	allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates

20. Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol?

	Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.
	Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.
	Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.
	It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding.

21. Four bits have been borrowed to create subnets. Which three addresses are subnet addresses? (Choose three.)

	192.168.14.8
	192.168.14.16
	192.168.14.24
	192.168.14.32
	192.168.14.148
	192.168.14.208

22. Refer to the exhibit. What type of header is shown?

	IPv4
	IPv6
	TCP
	UDP

23.

24. Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.224.0, which three addresses would be valid host addresses? (Choose three.)

	10.78.103.0
	10.67.32.0
	10.78.160.0
	10.78.48.0
	172.55.96.0
	172.211.100.0

25. What type of IP address is 172.16.134.48/27?

	a useable host address
	a broadcast address
	a network address
	a multicast address
	a public address

26. Which address is a valid IPv6 global unicast address?

	FE90::1::FFFF
	FD80::1::1234
	FE80::1:4545:6578:ABC1
	FEA0::100::7788:998F
	FC90::::5678:4251:FFFF

27. A network administrator needs to configure three local networks. The networks have these requirements:
Network 1 - 500 hosts
Network 2 - 100 hosts
Network 3 - 1000 hosts
Which three subnet masks will be needed to fulfill these requirements? (Choose three.)

	255.255.0.0
	255.255.255.0
	255.255.254.0
	255.255.252.0
	255.255.248.0
	255.255.255.128
	255.255.255.192

28.

29. A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

	RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
	RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
	RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
	RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
	RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

30. Refer to the exhibit. Two switches have been connected with ports that are configured as trunks. After the connection was made, SW2 displayed the status message as shown in the exhibit. What will solve this problem?

	SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# duplex full
	SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# full-duplex
	SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW2(config-if)# duplex full
	SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW2(config-if)# full-duplex

31. A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and one configured loopback interface is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What does the router OSPF process use to assign the router ID?

	the IP address of the interface that is configured with priority 0
	the OSPF area ID that is configured on the interface with the highest IP address
	the loopback interface IP address
	the highest IP address on the LAN interfaces
	the highest IP address that is configured on the WAN interfaces

32. What table does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm use to calculate the best route to each destination router?

	routing table
	topology table
	DUAL table
	CAM table
	ARP table

33. What two measures are used to prevent routing loops in networks that use distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.)

	link-state advertisements (LSA)
	Spanning Tree Protocol
	shortest path first tree
	split horizon
	hold-down timers

34. Refer to the exhibit. When the show ip ospf neighbor command is given from the R1# prompt, no output is shown. However, when the show ip interface brief command is given, all interfaces are showing up and up. What is the most likely problem?

	R2 has not brought the S0/0/1 interface up yet.
	R1 or R2 does not have a loopback interface that is configured yet.
	The ISP has not configured a static route for the ABC Company yet.
	R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network.
	R1 has not sent a default route down to R2 by using the default-information originate command.

35. Refer to the exhibit. The XYZ Company hosts web pages for small companies. Based on the exhibited information, what would be an appropriate route for the ISP to configure for the XYZ network?

	ISP# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/1
	ISP# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s/0/0/0
	ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/1
	ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0
	ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.240 s0/0/1
	ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.248 s0/0/1

36. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured routers RTA and RTB, but cannot ping from serial interface to serial interface. Which layer of the OSI model is the most likely cause of the problem?

	application
	transport
	network
	data link
	physical

37. What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

	They use hop count as their only metric.
	They only send out updates when a new network is added.
	They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
	They flood the entire network with routing updates.

38. Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands will configure router A for OSPF?

	router ospf 0 network 192.168.10.0 network 192.168.10.192
	router ospf 0 network 192.168.10.0
	router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0
	router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192 network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252
	router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.0 area 0

39. Refer to the exhibit. Router B should not send routing updates to router A. Which command can be used on router B to prevent RIP from sending these updates?

	passive-interface fastethernet 0/0
	passive-interface serial 0/0/0
	access-class 12 out
	access-class 12 in

40. A router has learned about network 192.168.168.0 through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will appear in the routing table for this network if the router has learned multiple routes?

	D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0
	O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, FastEthernet0/0
	R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, FastEthernet0/0
	S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

41. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator who is connected to the console of the Peanut router is able to ping the Serial0 and Ethernet0 ports of the Popcorn router but unable to ping its Ethernet1 interface. What are two possible causes for this problem? (Choose two.)

	The serial interface of the Popcorn router is shutdown.
	The Ethernet1 interface of the Popcorn router is shutdown.
	The Popcorn router did not include network 192.168.12.0 in its routing configuration.
	The Popcorn router is not forwarding RIP updates.
	The clock rate is missing from the configuration of one of the routers.

42. When is a WLAN a better solution than a LAN?

	when security is an issue
	when user mobility is needed
	when more than one laptop is used in a cubicle
	when electrical interference from surrounding machinery is an issue

43. Which wireless standard works only in the 2.4 GHz range and provides speeds up to 54 Mb/s?

	802.11a
	802.11b
	802.11g
	802.11i
	802.11n

44. Refer to the exhibit. An initial configuration is being performed on a new router. The network administrator encounters the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What is the problem?

	The enable secret command has not been issued yet.
	The enable password command has not been issued yet.
	The password command has not been set for the console port.
	The service password-encryption command has not been issued yet.

45.

46. Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?

	Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.
	The number of usable addresses that is assigned to a company is divided into smaller manageable groups.
	A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses.
	The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP addresses for each private IP address configured.

47. Which two pieces of information are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)

	destination address and wildcard mask
	source address and wildcard mask
	subnet mask and wildcard mask
	access list number between 100 and 199
	access list number between 1 and 99

48. Which two keywords can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair? (Choose two.)

	most
	host
	all
	any
	some
	gt

49. What guideline is generally followed about the placement of extended access control lists?

	They should be placed as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied.
	They should be placed as close as possible to the destination of the traffic to be denied.
	They should be placed on the fastest interface available.
	They should be placed on the destination WAN link.

50. Refer to the exhibit. A named access list called chemistry_block has been written to prevent users on the Chemistry Network and public Internet from access to the Records Server. All other users within the school should have access to this server. The list contains the following statements:
deny 172.16.102.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0
permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0
Which command sequence will place this list to meet these requirements?

	Hera(config)# interface fa0/0 Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in
	Hera(config)# interface s0/0/0 Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out
	Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/0 Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out
	Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/1 Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in
	Athena(config)# interface s0/0/1 Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in
	Athena(config)# interface fa0/0 Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out

51.

52. Refer to the exhibit. R3 has the following configuration:
R3# show running-config
--some output text omitted--
interface serial0
bandwidth 128
ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0
encapsulation frame-relay
frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast
After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router configuration, what is the problem?

	No clock rate has been configured on interface s0.
	There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement.
	An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.
	The encapsulation frame-relay command is missing the broadcast keyword.

53. What are three Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.)

	BECN
	DLCI
	DE
	FECN
	LMI
	Inverse ARP

54. Which network device is commonly used to allow multiple VPN connections into a corporate network?

	ACL
	IDS
	firewall
	concentrator

55. What is the default Layer 2 encapsulation protocol for a synchronous serial interface on a Cisco router?

	PPP
	HDLC
	Frame Relay
	CHAP
	IEEE 802.1Q

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