ccna 2 final ExamMay 06-2008

Take Assessment - ERouting Final Exam - CCNA Exploration: Routing Protocols and Concepts (Version 4.0)

1

Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.)

- neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled

- router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces


2

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?


- The packet will be dropped.

3.

The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?

- The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with

the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

4


Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?

- 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.

5


A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?

- S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1



6 Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.)

- prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad

- allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown

- permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down network



7.


Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?


- DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.


8 When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?


- The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.


9 Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?


- Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.


10 Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)


- The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.

- The router maintains the same source and destination IP.

- The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.

11


Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)


- network address

- wildcard mask

- area ID

12


What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?


It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.

13



Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?


- EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric.




14

A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on

- Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate


15

The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?


S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2


16



Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?


- 172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17



17



Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?


- Only the enable password is encrypted.



18 Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)


- They are aware of the complete network topology.

- They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.



19 Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)


- OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.

- EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.

- RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.



20



Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)


-Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network

- Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network



21 What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)


- tests Layer 2 connectivity

- enabled by default on each interface

- provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled



22



Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?


- Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.

23

What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

- Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.

- Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.




24 What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?


- R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0


25 What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
- The routers must agree on the network type.

- The routers must use the same dead interval.



26



Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to figure out why BOS does not have the 10.0.0.0/24 network in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF in area 0. The links between the routers are operational and the administrator is able to ping between all router interfaces. What is a logical next step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
- Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.


27



Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)


- 10.0.0.0/8

-192.168.2.0/24



28
Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?


Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.



29
Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?

Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.



30


Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?


The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.


31
Refer to the exhibit. The ORL router is unable to form a neighbor relationship with the JAX router. What is a possible cause of this problem?


The command network 192.168.2.0 is missing from the EIGRP configuration on the JAX router.
32

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
- Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.


3
Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)

- OSPF interval timers mismatch

- interface network type mismatch

- inconsistent authentication configuration

34


Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?


- 172.16.0.0/13



35


A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?

- B(config)# router rip

B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

36
refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?

- The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.

37



The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?


- The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router.




38

Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?


- split horizon

39


What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?


limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded


40


Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)


- The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.

- Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.

- No default route has been configured.


41 Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)


- As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.

- If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.

- The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.



42

Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?


- 198.18.48.0/21


43

Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three.)


DCE

CSU/DSU

modem

44
Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?


- 2



45


Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)


- Paris(config)# router eigrp 100

- Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0

- Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0


46 Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)


- packet switching


- path selection


47


Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:


R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2

R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1


When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?


Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.



48
Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?


- It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC


49 Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)


NVRAM - stores the configuration file

POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules



50
Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)


- ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0

- ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2



51
When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?


B, D



52
Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?


0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1


53 Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?

- Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.


54 What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first database?


learn about directly connected networks


55


What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?


used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests



56


Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?


The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.



57



Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?


- It is the metric, which is cost.




58


Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

- The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.

- The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.

- The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

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ccna2 final version 4.0(97,2%)

CCNA2 FINAL (version 1)
CCNA 2 FINAL (Version 2)

ccna 2 final ExamMay 06-2008

Take Assessment - ERouting Final Exam - CCNA Exploration: Routing Protocols and Concepts (Version 4.0)

1

Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.)

- neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled

- router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces


2

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?


- The packet will be dropped.

3.

The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?

- The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with

the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

4


Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?

- 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.

5


A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?

- S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1



6 Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.)

- prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad

- allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown

- permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down network



7.


Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?


- DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.


8 When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?


- The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.


9 Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?


- Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.


10 Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)


- The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.

- The router maintains the same source and destination IP.

- The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.

11


Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)


- network address

- wildcard mask

- area ID

12


What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?


It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.

13



Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?


- EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric.




14

A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on

- Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate


15

The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?


S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2


16



Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?


- 172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17



17



Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?


- Only the enable password is encrypted.



18 Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)


- They are aware of the complete network topology.

- They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.



19 Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)


- OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.

- EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.

- RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.



20



Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)


-Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network

- Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network



21 What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)


- tests Layer 2 connectivity

- enabled by default on each interface

- provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled



22



Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?


- Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.

23

What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

- Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.

- Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.




24 What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?


- R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0


25 What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
- The routers must agree on the network type.

- The routers must use the same dead interval.



26



Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to figure out why BOS does not have the 10.0.0.0/24 network in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF in area 0. The links between the routers are operational and the administrator is able to ping between all router interfaces. What is a logical next step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
- Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.


27



Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)


- 10.0.0.0/8

-192.168.2.0/24



28
Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?


Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.



29
Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?

Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.



30


Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?


The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.


31
Refer to the exhibit. The ORL router is unable to form a neighbor relationship with the JAX router. What is a possible cause of this problem?


The command network 192.168.2.0 is missing from the EIGRP configuration on the JAX router.
32

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
- Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.


3
Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)

- OSPF interval timers mismatch

- interface network type mismatch

- inconsistent authentication configuration

34


Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?


- 172.16.0.0/13



35


A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?

- B(config)# router rip

B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

36
refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?

- The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.

37



The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?


- The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router.




38

Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?


- split horizon

39


What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?


limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded


40


Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)


- The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.

- Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.

- No default route has been configured.


41 Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)


- As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.

- If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.

- The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.



42

Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?


- 198.18.48.0/21


43

Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three.)


DCE

CSU/DSU

modem

44
Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?


- 2



45


Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)


- Paris(config)# router eigrp 100

- Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0

- Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0


46 Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)


- packet switching


- path selection


47


Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:


R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2

R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1


When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?


Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.



48
Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?


- It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC


49 Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)


NVRAM - stores the configuration file

POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules



50
Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)


- ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0

- ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2



51
When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?


B, D



52
Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?


0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1


53 Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?

- Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.


54 What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first database?


learn about directly connected networks


55


What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?


used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests



56


Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?


The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.



57



Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?


- It is the metric, which is cost.




58


Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

- The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.

- The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.

- The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

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CCNA4 SKILL Question

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CCNA4 FINAL (New 4)

1. Identify the factors that contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN. (Choose three.)
• improper placement of enterprise level servers
• addition of hosts to a physical segment
replacement of hubs with workgroup switches
• increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications
migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN


2. Which of the following are examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)
• a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices
a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices
• a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet
a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer
• a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console

3. Which of the following eliminates switching loops?
hold-down timers
poison reverse
• spanning tree protocol
time to live
split horizon protocol

4. The show cdp neighbors command is a very useful network troubleshooting tool. Using the output in the graphic, select the statements that are true. (Choose two.)
CDP operates at the network layer of the OSI model.
• The output of this command displays information about directly connected Cisco devices only.
The switch is attached to the SanJose1 FastEthernet0/21 interface.
SanJose1 is running CDP version 12.0.
SanJose1 has two fully operational, cdp-enabled Cisco switches directly connected to it.
• SanJose2 is a 2600 series router running several routed protocols

5. A network administrator can ping the Denver router, but gets a 'Password Required but None Set' message when trying to connect remotely via Telnet. Which command sequence must be applied to the Denver router to allow remote access?
 

Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco

Router(config)# line virtual terminal
Router(config-line)# enable login
Router(config-line)# password cisco

Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# enable secret
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config)# enable secret cisco
Router(config)# enable cisco

6. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
low processor overhead
poison reverse
routing loops
split horizon
• shortest-path first calculations

7. A router does not load its configuration after a power failure. After running the show startup-configuration command, the adminstrator finds that the original configuration is intact. What is the cause of this problem?
The configuration register is set for 0x2100.
The configuration register is set for 0x2101.
The configuration register is set for 0x2102.
• The configuration register is set for 0x2142.
Boot system commands are not configured.
Flash memory is empty causing the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM
Nederst på formularen

8. Which commands are used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose three.)
• show ip interface
show ip route
show processes
• show running-config
show cdp neighbor
• show access-lists

9. Which of the following are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)
destination address and wildcard mask
• source address and wildcard mask
subnet mask and wildcard mask
access list number between 100 and 199 or 2000 and 2699
• access list number between 1 and 99 or 1300 to 1999

10. Which of the following are keywords that can be used in an access control list to replace a dotted decimal wildcard mask? (Choose two.)
most
• host
all
• any
some
sum

11. Refer to the diagram. All ports on Switch A are in the Sales VLAN and all ports on Switch B are in the Accounting VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are shown? (Choose two).
3 collision domains
• 3 broadcast domains
5 broadcast domains
• 9 collision domains
10 collision domains
13 collision domains

12. Refer to the graphic. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM, which address can be configured on one of the serial interfaces?
192.168.16.63/27
192.168.16.158/27
192.168.16.192/27
192.168.16.113/30
192.168.16.145/30
• 192.168.16.193/30

13. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
• prevents Layer 2 loops
prevents routing loops on a router
creates smaller collision domains
creates smaller broadcast domains
allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates

14. What is the purpose of a loopback address when using the OSPF routing protocol?
activates the OSPF neighboring process
• ensures a persistent router ID for the OSPF process
provides a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process
streamlines and speeds up the convergence process

15. Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1d Spanning Tree Protocol?
Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.
• Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.
Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.
It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding

16. Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback address on a router?

Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0

Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0

Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

• Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255

17. Which routing protocols are classful and do not support VLSM? (Choose two.)
EIGRP
OSPF
• RIP v1
RIP v2
• IGRP

18. Refer to the graphic. Two switches are connected together through a trunk port. SW2 displays the message shown. Which of the following will solve the duplex mismatch?

SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# duplex full

SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# full-duplex

• SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# duplex full

SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# full-duplex

19. Refer to the graphic. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What could be the problem?
EIGRP does not support VLSM.
The routers were not configured to monitor neighbor adjacency changes.
The default bandwidth was used on the routers.
• An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface.

20. According to the the provided router output, which of the following statements is true regarding PPP operation?
Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.
Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.
Neither the link-establishment phase nor the the network-layer phase completed successfully.
• Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully

21. Frame Relay is configured over a point-to-point connection between two routers. The output of the show frame-relay pvc command indicates that the status of this PVC is inactive. Which of the following devices could be the source of the problem? (Choose two.)
local router
local Frame Relay switch
• remote router
• remote Frame Relay switch
R3 has the following configuration:
R3# show running-config
--some output text omitted--
interface serial0/0
bandwidth 128
ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0
encapsulation frame-relay
frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast

22. After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router configuration, what might be problem?
• No clock rate assigned.
There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement.
An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.
The encapsulation command is missing the broadcast keyword

23. Which statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.)
• The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism.
The LMI type must always be manually configured.
The available LMI types are NI1, DMS100 and 5ESS.
The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF.
• The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the Frame Relay switch.
• The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the DTE and DCE

24. Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?
• Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.
The number of usable addresses assigned to a company is divided into smaller manageable groups.
A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses.
The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP addresses for each private IP address configured

25. Which two statements are true about the committed information rate on a Frame Relay link? (Choose two.)
The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must be less than the port speed.
The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must equal the port speed.
• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs can be greater than the port speed.
• The DE bit will be set on frames that are transmitted in excess of the CIR.
Frames that are transmitted at greater than the CIR will be discarded at the source.
It is impossible to transmit frames at a rate in excess of the CIR

26. Which of the following commands would be used to troubleshoot the processing of call control functions such as call setup, signaling, and termination?
show interface bri0/0
show isdn active
debug isdn q921
• debug isdn q931
debug ppp negotiation
debug ppp authentication

27. Which of the following statements are true regarding PPP? (Choose three.)
• PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous physical media.
PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.
PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.
• PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data link connection.
• PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection

28. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which of the following reasons might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)
establishes identities with a two-way handshake
• uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities
control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events
• transmits login information in encrypted format
• uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks
makes authorized network administrator intervention a requirement to establish each session

29. Why are static routes often used with ISDN DDR?
They are more stable than dynamic routing protocols.
They are more accurate than dynamic routing protocols because they are put in by a network administrator.
They are easier to modify when a faster technology is installed.
• They prevent the unnecessary activation of the link

30. Assuming that four bits have been borrowed to make subnets, identify the subnet network addresses. (Choose three.)
192.168.14.8
• 192.168.14.16
192.168.14.24
• 192.168.14.32
192.168.14.148
• 192.168.14.208

31. A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes based on how much of a frame is received before the forwarding process begins. Each of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic signifies the point in a frame where a particular forwarding mode will begin. Which one of the following groups reflects the sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows?
• 1) fast forward
2) fragment free
3) store-and-forward

1) store-and-forward
2) fragment free
3) fast forward

1) fragment free
2) fast forward
3) store-and-forward

1) fast forward
2) store-and-forward
3) fragment free

32. Which of the following commands will display a communication message on a router before the router prompt is shown?
• banner motd * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
message Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.
banner * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
hostname (Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.)
Øverst på formularen

33. A router needs to be added to OSPF area 0. Which commands should be used to enable OSPF on the router? (Choose two.)
RouterA(config)# router ospf
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

34. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands will configure router A for OSPF?
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0

• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0

router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252

router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0

35. Which of the following protocols would exchange information between routers to share network addresses and their metrics?
TCP
• RIP
CSMA/CD
Ethernet

36. Which ISDN device can be directly connected to a two-wire local loop in a North American city?
a router with a serial interface
a router with an S/T interface
• a router with a U interface
an ISDN terminal adapter

37. The output of the show ip interfaces brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. Which of the following are possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)
The clock rate is not set on the DTE.
An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.
A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.
• The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.
• Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device

38. Which of the following is a characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)
• data transport reliability
best path determination
• establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits
encapsulation of packets in a data frame with source and destination MAC addresses
best-effort datagram delivery

39. Which statement is true regarding the command ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9? (Choose two.)
• A packet destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.
192.168.7.9 is the destination network for this route.
192.168.7.24 is the next-hop router in this command.
This command is issued from the interface configuration mode.
• This command is used to define a static route

40. Which of the following application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)
• SMTP
• FTP
SNMP
• HTTP
TFTP
DHCP

41. Which terms refer to Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.)
• BECN
DLCI
• DE
• FECN
LMI
Inverse ARP

42. Which of the following router commands will verify that a path exists to a destination network?
Router# show ip interfaces brief
• Router# show ip route
Router# show cdp neighbors
Router# show running-config
Router# show protocols

43. When EIGRP is configured on a router, which table of DUAL information is used to calculate the best route to each destination router?
router table
• topology table
DUAL table
CAM table
ARP table

44. Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which of the following commands is used on router A to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two)
• ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224
summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31
ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
• serial interface on router A
serial interface on router B

45. A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and two loopback interfaces configured is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What is used by the OSPF process to assign the router ID?
the IP address of the interface configured with priority 0
the OSPF area ID configured on the interface with the highest IP address
• the loopback with the highest IP address configured
the highest IP address on the LAN interfaces
the highest IP address configured on the WAN interfaces

46. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56 255.255.255.224, on which subnetwork does this address reside?
172.0.0.0
172.16.134.0
• 172.16.134.32
172.16.134.48
172.16.134.47
172.16.134.63

47. Which commands show when the last IGRP routing update was received? (Choose two.)
• Router# show ip protocols
Router# show version
Router# show interfaces
Router# show ip updates
• Router# show ip route

48. When using access control lists to filter traffic, which of the following is used to track multiple sessions occurring between hosts?
IP addresses
subnet masks
• port numbers
routed protocols
routing protocols
interfaces

49. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
• This is a network address.
This is not a valid address

50. The company network shown in the drawing has to be subnetted. The company has leased the Class C IP address of 200.1.2.0. Which of the following network addresses and masks would be appropriate for one of the subnetworks?
200.1.2.96 255.255.255.192
• 200.1.2.160 255.255.255.224
200.1.2.80 255.255.255.224
200.1.2.32 255.255.255.240

Read more...

CCNA4 FINAL (New 3)

1. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task?
routable translation
dynamic translation
static translation
• port address translation




2. The LAN attached to the Ethernet interface of the Raleigh router shown in the graphic is addressed with private IP addresses. If one public IP is assigned to the company, which commands could be used in a configuration that allows all devices with private IPs in this network to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
ip nat outside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
ip nat inside serial0
• ip nat inside source list 1 pool Raleigh overload
ip nat inside Raleigh overload
ip inside nat source list 1 interface serial0 Raleigh

3. The command output shown in the graphic was taken from a Cisco 806 broadband router. Which kind of address translation is in effect on this router?
static
dynamic
• overload
private
public

4. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 192.168.146.0/22
172.10.25.0/16
• 172.31.0.0/16
20.0.0.0/8
• 10.172.92.8/29

5. How will data be transmitted from the router to the ISP if the router has the two links shown in the graphic?
Both links will transmit data at the same rate.
1544 bits can be transmitted simultaneously from the router over the T1 line.
• Both links will transmit bits one by one.
The 56K link will transmit a maximum of 53 bits at the same time.

6. Which statements about DHCP are true? (Choose three.)
DHCP uses TCP.
DHCP uses UDP.
• DHCP sends messages to the server on port 67.
DHCP sends messages to the server on port 68.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 67.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 68.

7. Which command would be used to exclude the IP address 192.168.24.5 from the DHCP address pool on a router?
Router(dhcp-config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(config-excluded)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(dhcp-config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5

8. The WAN connection for a nationwide company with 250 offices must support constant connections to core layer services for file sharing, and occasional Internet access. Which combination of WAN technologies will meet these needs with minimum expense?
Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ATM for file server access
Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ISDN for file server access
ISDN for Internet access and X.25 for file server access
• ISDN for Internet access and Frame Relay PVC for file server access

9. Which command would produce the output shown in the graphic?
show ip dhcp server statistics
show ip dhcp binding
• debug ip dhcp server events
debug ip dhcp binding

10. Which of the following devices is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop for digital lines?
terminal adapter
modem
• CSU/DSU
PBX switch
ISDN switch
Frame Relay Switch

11. Which of the following statements are true about Frame Relay? (Choose three.)
Frame Relay operation is defined by a series of ISO standards.
• Frame Relay is a packet switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
Frame Relay only supports point-to-point connections.
• A router can be considered as data terminal equipment (DTE) in a frame relay system.
Frame Relay is a cell switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
• Frame Relay networks use a subset of the HDLC protocol to carry information.

12. ITU-T Q.921 specifies the use of which protocol for sending control and signaling messages between the router and the ISDN switch?
HDLC
IPCP
LAPB
• LAPD
NCP
SS7

13. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?
X.25
DSL
• ATM
ISDN BRI
ISDN PRI

14. Which statement explains why basic DSL is an unpopular WAN connectivity choice for enterprise computer departments that support home users?
DSL offers insufficient bandwidth to home users.
DSL requires the installation of new cables, which is not always possible for home users.
DSL dialup connection time is too slow for business use.
• DSL has limited geographical availability.

15. When planning simple WAN connections for a small company, which feature of the three layer hierarchical model makes it a good choice for the WAN topology.
It provides for redundancy.
• It allows for easy WAN expansion in case of company growth.
It is less expensive.
It provides faster connection time.
It provides less latency and jitter.

16. Which of the following terms describes a device that will put data on the local loop?
DLCI
CO
• DCE
DTE
PRI
BRI

17. Which of the following are supported by a BRI interface on a router? (Choose two.)
• Two independent channels that can carry analog data with a bandwidth of 64 KHz.
A single 128 Kbps digital bearer channel.
Two multiplexed channels carrying digital data.
A single 64 Kbps signaling channel.
A multiplexed data channel that can only handle SS7 information.
• A 16 Kbps delta channel used for signaling purposes.

18. A network administrator has been asked to provide the network in the United States with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with two serial connections. What must be done to adapt one of the serial interfaces of this router for the ISDN connection?
Nothing. The router is already suitable.
Purchase a BRI WAN interface card to install in the router.
Purchase a U interface to install in the router.
• Purchase a TA/NT1 device to install on the router.

19 (NEED ANSWERS!!!)Which of the following is a function of a DCE device?
determines the next-hop address for a packet
• multiplexes signals from several sources
adapts information for use on a service provider's network
used to directly connect two DTEs to simulate a WAN network

20. Why would data frames be discarded in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
The frame contains an incorrect IP address.
• An error has been detected in computing the frame check sequence.
There is not enough bandwidth dedicated for the data contained in the frame.
Data is transmitted at a rate greater than the access speed.
• The frame contains an incorrect DLCI.

21. Which of the following are commonly used as Data Communications Equipment? (Choose two.)
• modem
router
• CSU/DSU
ISDN Switch
Frame Relay Switch

22. Which of the following LCP options can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)
• CHAP
• Stacker
IPCP
CDPCP
• Multilink

23. Which command will provide for CHAP authentication if the hostname on a challenging router is tampa with a password of florida?
• username tampa password florida
username tampa florida
hostname tampa password florida
hostname tampa florida

24. Which of the following describes the PAP protocol? (Choose two.)
• sends unencrypted authentication passwords
performs a three-way handshake
• allows repeated login attempts
uses the remote router hostname to verify identity
sends a random challenge throughout the session

25. Why was NAT created? (Choose two.)
to create firewalls on routers
• to conserve IP addresses
to translate domain names into IP addresses
to map network addresses to the corresponding data link address
• to hide internal addresses from external devices

26. An ISDN router is configured for DDR as shown in the graphic to provide Internet connectivity for the company. Immediately after a user in the company attempts opens a web browser to connect to the Internet, another user in the company tries to download a file using FTP. What will happen? (Choose two.)
• The user that opened the browser will connect to the Internet because the DDR link will consider this traffic interesting.
The Internet user will be disconnected because the FTP data will cause the DDR link to shut down.
The DDR link will allow the FTP traffic because it is interesting.
The DDR link will not allow the FTP traffic because it is not interesting.
The FTP connection will fail because the DDR link is already in use for the Internet connection.
• The FTP connection will succeed because the web user already opened the DDR link.

27. Which command configures the SPID on the first B channel of an ISDN interface?
Router(config)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
Router(config)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]
Router(config-if)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config-if)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]

28. What does the command debug isdn q921 display?
exchange of call setup and teardown messages
PAP and CHAP authentication traffic
• Layer 2 messages on the D channel
protocol errors and statistics
Layer 2 messages on the B channel

29. When PPP authentication is enabled, which of the following may be checked before establishing a PPP link between two devices? (Choose two.)
the enable password on the remote device
the ip host configuration on the remote device
• the security server database for the username and password of the remote device
the hostname and enable password on the local device
• the local database for the username and password of the remote device

30. How many separate B channel circuits can be provisioned on a PRI interface that uses a T1 line for connectivity?
2
16
• 23
24
30
128

31. Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
• Linux
Windows 98
Windows ME
• Windows XP
• Windows 2000

32. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC company to the Orlando office?
MAC address of the Orlando router
MAC address of the DC router
192.168.1.25
192.168.1.26
DLCI 100
• DLCI 200

33. What does a DLCI of 0 indicate about a frame? (Choose two.)
This is the first data frame sent by the router.
• This is a management frame.
The encapsulation type is Cisco.
The encapsulation type is IETF.
• The LMI type is Ansi or q933a.
The LMI type is Cisco.

34. Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)
Link Access Protocol - Data
• High-Level Data Link Control
Logical Link Control
Serial Data Link Control
• Point to Point protocol
Binary Synchronous Control protocol

35. An administrator consoled into the Jelly router needs to telnet to the Butter router. What DLCI will the Jelly router place in the frame to perform this operation?
110
115
220
• 225

36. Which commands can be used to identify which DLCIs are active? (Choose two.)
• show frame-relay map
show frame-relay lmi
• show frame-relay pvc
show frame-relay interface
show interfaces
show ip route

37. A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial0/0 command on the local router and sees the following line in the output:
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose three.)
• remote CSU/DSU failure
serial cable missing
interface shutdown
• keepalives not being sent
• clocking signal missing

38. A router needs to forward a message received from a host. How does the router identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)
The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.
The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.
• The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.
• A table of static mappings can be searched.
The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.

39. Which of the following statements regarding point-to-point subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)
A point-to-point subinterface on one router must be connected to a similar subinterface on a remote router.
Each point-to-point subinterface connection is configured with its own subnet.
The DLCIs configured on the remote and local routers must be the same for the PVC.
LMI frames are not transmitted through a subinterface.
Routing updates in point-to-point networks are not subject to the split-horizon rule.

40. Which of the following can be concluded from the router output displayed in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• The local DLCI number of this PVC is 100.
The interface has been configured for subinterfaces and this map is for subinterface 0.
• Inverse ARP has determined the remote ip address as 10.140.1.1.
The LMI type is ANSI (0x64).
There is currently no congestion on the link.

41. Which of the following are functions of the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)
• exchange information about the status of virtual circuits
map DLCIs to network addresses
• provide flow control
provide error notification
provide congestion notification
• send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC

42. Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
• PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.
• PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.
PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
• PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.

43. Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
• exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity
sends authentication password to verify identity
• prevents transmission of login information in plain text
• disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
initiates a two-way handshake

44. Which of the following switching types will allow the communication devices in the provider's network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?
circuit-switched
• packet-switched
frame-switched
dedicated-switched lines
lease-switched

45. How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.

46. Which of the following describes the WAN devices and cabling shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
A null-modem cable is used between RouterD and DeviceC for connectivity.
A DB-25 or DB-9 serial cable is connected to interface S0/0 of RouterA.
• DeviceB and DeviceC are DCE devices.
• The same encoding scheme must be used by DeviceB and DeviceC.
A synchronous serial connection exists between DeviceB and DeviceC.

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CCNA4 FINAL (New 2)

1. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?

Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
**The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.
All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.



2. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?

The username and password are not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
**The vtys are not configured correctly.



3. Refer to the exhibit. How is the TCP/IP configuration information specified by the default-router and dns-server commands made available?

The TCP/IP information is forwarded to a 10.0.1.3 to be supplied to DHCP clients.
**The TCP/IP information is used by DHCP clients that are configured to request a configuration from R1.
The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1.
The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254.

4. What is a major characteristic of a worm?

malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs
tricks users into running the infected software
a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event
**exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network


5. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?

The 10.1.1.225 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host.

The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10.

**The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network.

Port address translation is in effect.



6. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why Company A reports higher download speeds than Company B?

Company B has a higher volume of POTS voice traffic than Company A.

Company B shares the conection to the DSLAM with more clients than Company A.

Company A only uses microfilters on branch locations.

**Company A is closer to the service provider.




7. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request entering interface s0/0/0, destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?

It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 permit any any statement and allows the packet into the router.
**It reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no access-list 101 permit any any statement.

It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 statement, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router.

It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any statement, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then drops the packet.


8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output shown? (Choose two.)

This network is experiencing congestion.

**The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
Data is not flowing in this network.

**The network is discarding eligible packets.

The DLCI is globally significant.



9. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?

Configure DHCP and static NAT.

Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.

Configure static NAT for all ten users.

**Configure dynamic NAT with overload.



10. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?

a new WAN service supporting only IPv6

NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address

**a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2

static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses



11. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?

HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2
**HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2

HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2



12. An established company has recently transitioned from outsourced LAN support to a completely in-house staff. The outsourcing company is no longer in business, so no records are available. There are many user complaints about application speed and availability. What two considerations apply to this situation? (Choose two.)

A network utilization baseline should quickly reveal application availability.

A period of 24 to 48 hours should provide a sufficient baseline to track normal network activity.

It is easier to start with monitoring all available data inputs on application servers, and then fine-tune to fewer variables along the way.

The initial baseline results have little relevance to current values after the network has been modified or grown in usage.

**When it is practical, network administrators should attempt to automate the collection of performance data and stay away from manual collection.

**Creating a network baseline data helps determine device thresholds for alerting.


13. Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?

PPP with PAP

**PPP with CHAP

HDLC with PAP

HDLC with CHAP



14. An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP address via the use of the nslookup command. At what OSI layer is the problem most likely to be found?

physical layer

data link layer

network layer

**application layer



15. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what are two instances when a static Frame Relay map should be used? (Choose two.)

when the remote router is a non-Cisco router

**when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP

when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier

**when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled

when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used

16. Which three statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose three.)

Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.

**One access list per port per protocol per direction is permitted.

Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.

**There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.

**Statements are processed sequentially from top to bottom until a match is found.

The inbound keyword refers to traffic entering the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.


17. Which technology would provide the highest bandwidth connections between company sites at the lowest cost?

**broadband Internet site-to-site VPN connections

satellite based network connections

dedicated point-to-point circuits

Frame Relay PVCs



18. Refer to the exhibit. This serial interface is not functioning correctly. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely cause?

improper LMI type

interface reset

**PPP negotiation failure

unplugged cable



19. What three statements describe the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

**A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.

A modem terminates a digital local loop.

A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.

**A modem terminates an analog local loop.

**A router is commonly considered a DTE device.

A router is commonly considered a DCE device.



20. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?

Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.

Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.

ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.

**Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.



21. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a Cisco router. Branch B has a non-Cisco router set for IETF encapsulation. After the commands shown are entered, R2 and R3 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R3 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?

The PVC to R3 must be point-to-point.

LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.

**The ietf parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 203 command.

The PVCs at R2 use different encapsulation types. A single port can only support one encapsulation type.



22. Which statement is true regarding wildcard masks?

The wildcard mask and subnet mask perform the same function.

The wildcard mask is always the inverse of the subnet mask.

**A "0" in the wildcard mask identifies IP address bits that must be checked.

A "1" in the wildcard mask identifies a network or subnet bit.



23. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC Company to the Orlando office?

MAC address of the Orlando router

MAC address of the DC router

192.168.1.25

192.168.1.26

DLCI 100

**DLCI 200



24 .A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site with four remote sites. What advantage would dedicated leased lines provide to the customer compared to a shared Frame Relay solution?

lower cost

lower latency and jitter

**variable bandwidth capacity

fewer physical router interfaces



25. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive RIP routing updates. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be enabled on router R2 to remedy the problem?

proxy ARP

CDP updates

SNMP services

**RIP authentication



26. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated?

show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.

show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.

**show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.

show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.



27. Which statement about a VPN is true?

VPN link establishment and maintenance is provided by LCP.

DLCI addresses are used to identify each end of the VPN tunnel.

**VPNs use virtual Layer 3 connections that are routed through the Internet.

Only IP packets can be encapsulated by a VPN for tunneling through the Internet.



28. Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router R3 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?

Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.

Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.

**Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.

Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 192.168.10.10 any eq telnet .



29. Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands shown when an ACL called Managers already exists on the router?

The commands overwrite the existing Managers ACL.

**The commands are added at the end of the existing Managers ACL.

The network administrator receives an error stating that the ACL already exists.

The commands will create a duplicate Managers ACL containing only the new commands being entered.



30. Which three statements accurately describe a security policy? (Choose three.)

**It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.

**It defines a process for managing security violations.

**It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.

The remote access policy is a component of the security policy that governs acceptable use of e-mail systems.

It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumventing security measures.

It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.


31. Refer to the exhibit. The link between the CTRL and BR_1 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?

The clock rate must be 56000.

**The usernames are misconfigured.

The IP addresses are on different subnets.

The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.

The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.

Interface serial 0/0/0 on CTRL must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on BR_1.



32. What effect would the Router1(config-ext-nacl)# permit tcp 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www command have when implemented inbound on the f0/0 interface?

All TCP traffic is permitted, and all other traffic is denied.

The command is rejected by the router because it is incomplete.

All traffic from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted anywhere on any port.

**Traffic originating from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted to all TCP port 80 destinations.



33. What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?

use the copy tftp: flash: command

boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually

telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password

**boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes



34. A router in a Frame Relay network needs to forward a message received from a host. What two methods does the router use to identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)

The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.

The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.

The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.

**A table of static mappings can be searched.

The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.



35. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interface commands, at which OSI layer is a fault indicated?

application

transport

network

**data link

physical



36. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?

interface fa0/0/0, inbound

interface fa0/0/0, outbound

interface fa0/0/1, inbound

**interface fa0/0/1, outbound



37. Refer to the exhibit. The SSH connections between the remote user and the server are failing. The correct configuration of NAT has been verified. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

SSH is unable to pass through NAT.

**There are incorrect access control list entries.

The access list has the incorrect port number for SSH.

The ip helper command is required on S0/0/0 to allow inbound connections.



38. Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.)

**The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line.

Encapsulation should of this inteface be changed to PPP.

**There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2.

The physical connection between the two routers has failed.

The IP address of S0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used.



39. Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent from Host A to Host B through the VPN tunnel between R1 and R3. When the packet first arrives at R3, what are the source and destination IP addresses of the packet?

Source 192.168.1.2 - Destination 192.168.4.2

Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2

**Source 192.168.2.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2

Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.4.2



40. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?

RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.

All interfaces have been configured with the incorrect IPv4 addresses.

**RIPv1 or RIPv2 needs to be configured in addition to RIPng to successfully use IPv4.

When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are shut down in favor of the newer technology.



41. Which wireless solution can provide mobile users with non line-of-sight broadband Internet access at speeds comparable to DSL or cable?

Wi-Fi

WiMAX

**satellite

Metro Ethernet



42. A network administrator added two switches and a new VLAN over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?

**Perform a baseline test and compare the current values to values that were obtained in previous weeks.

Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages is improved.

Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded from previous weeks.

Performance on the intranet can be determined by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.



43. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is adding R1 to an existing network. As a part of the corporate IT procedures, the administrator attempts to back up the router Cisco IOS software of R1 and receives the output shown. The network administrator then attempts unsuccessfully to ping the TFTP server from the console session. What should be done next to isolate this problem?

From R2, validate that interface Fa0/0 is operational.

From the TFTP server, verify that the software on the TFTP server is operational.

From the TFTP server, confirm there is enough room on the TFTP server for the Cisco IOS software.

**From the console session, make sure that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.



44. What functionality do access control lists provide when implementing dynamic NAT on a Cisco router?

**defines which addresses can be translated

defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

defines which addresses can be accessed from the inside network



45. A network administrator is working with an applications team to fix a problem that a server based application is having with response time. The administrator has examined the network portions of the data path and identified several possible problem areas. The applications team has simultaneously identified potential issues with the current release of software. The network administrator begins addressing the network issues while the applications team implements software patches.

Which statement applies to this situation?

**Changes to the network will reveal problems that are caused by the new patches.

Scheduling will be more difficult if the network and software teams work independently.

It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.

Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.


46. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?

10.1.1.2:1234

172.30.20.1:1234

**172.30.20.1:3333

192.168.1.2:80



47. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)

Once a good password is created, do not change it.

**Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords.

**Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.

**Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.

Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.

Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.



48. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 172.16.4.1 172.16.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?

Traffic that is destined for 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5 will be dropped by the router.

Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

**The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.



49. Which two statements are true about IPv6? (Choose two.)

**Security options are build into IPv6.

IPv6 addresses require less router overhead to process.

IPv6 can only be configured on an interface that does not have IPv4 on it.

There is no way to translate between IPv4 addresses and IPv6 addresses.

**When enabled on a router, IPv6 can automatically configure link-local IPv6 addresses on all interfaces.



50. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?

The serial interfaces are in different subnets.

**The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.

The RIPng network command is not configured.

The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.



51. At what physical location does the responsibilty for a WAN connection change from the user to the service provider?

demilitarized zone (DMZ)

**demarcation point

local loop

cloud



52. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from this DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.1.1". What is the problem?

The 192.168.1.1 address has not been excluded from the DHCP pool.

**The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is incorrect.

The default router for the 192Network pool is incorrect.

The 192.168.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.



53. Which three functions are provided by the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)

**exchange information about the status of virtual circuits

**map DLCIs to network addresses

provide flow control

provide error notification

provide congestion notification

**send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC



54. Which three items are LCP options that can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)

**CHAP

**Stacker

IPCP

CDPCP

**Multilink



55. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)

checksum

digital certificates

**encapsulation

**encryption

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