CCNA1 FINAL 100%

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1  A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?

Use the ipconfig /all command at the host�s command prompt.
X Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the     gateway.
Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.
Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer's website.


2  Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?

X A, B, D, G
A, B, E, F
C, D, G, I
G, H, I, J


3  Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?

X only computer D
only computer A and computer D
only computer B, computer C, and computer D
all computers


4  Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?

vty
aux
console
X enable secret
enable password


5  Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

X TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
X TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
X TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.


6  Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)

10 Base-T
10 Base-2
10 Base-5
X 100 Base-FX
100 Base TX
X 1000 Base LX


7  Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?

127.0.0.1
192.168.64.196
X 192.168.254.1
192.168.254.9
192.168.254.254


8  Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients. Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.

1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
1.MDA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MUA 7.POP 8.MDA
X 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA


9  Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?

X address translation
DHCP services
ftpd
web server


10  Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B? What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?

issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0
X issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1
issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0
issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1


11  Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)

X 172.16.4.63 /26
172.16.4.129 /26
X 172.16.4.191 /26
172.16.4.51 /27
X 172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.221 /27


12  What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)

Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
X A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
X All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
X After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.


13  In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?

Flash
X NVRAM
RAM
ROM


14  A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?

access point
host
hub
X router
switch


15  Which OSI layer protocol does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?

application
presentation
session
X transport


16  Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.)

Router(config)# line vty 0 3
Router(config-line)# password c13c0
Router(config-line)# login

The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access.
X The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries set the console and Telnet password to "c13c0".
Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
X Access will be permitted for Telnet using "c13c0" as the password.


17  Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?

Switch-6J>
X Switch-6J#
Switch-6J(config)#
Switch-6J(config-if)#
Switch-6J(config-line)#


18  Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?

172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
X 172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192


19  When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?

when the interface is functioning as a DTE device
when the interface timers have been cleared
when the connected DTE device is shut down
X when the interface is functioning as a DCE device


20  When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?

connectionless acknowledgements
X upper-layer connection-oriented protocols
Network layer IP protocols
Transport layer UDP protocols


21  A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure?

console
enable
X enable secret
VTY


22  Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on RouterA?

a FTP client
a telnet client
X a terminal emulation program
a web browser


23  Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1. Which two statements are true about the application layer protocol that is used to make this connection? (Choose two.)

The data is encrypted.
X The connection type is called a VTY session.
A server process is running on PC1.
A GET request is sent to RouterB.
X The application name is the same for the service, protocol, and client.


24  The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?

X service port number
host logical address
device physical address
virtual connection identifier


25  Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two.)

X A single broadcast domain is present
Two logical address ranges are required.
Three broadcast domains are shown.
Four networks are needed.
X Five collision domains exist.


26  Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?

IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2
X IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5
IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1
IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18


27  Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)

X segment1
segment2
X segment3
X segment4
segment5


28  What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three.)

uses a flat structure
prevent broadcasts
X heirarchical
X uniquely identifies each host
48 bits in length
X contains a network portion


29  Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?

The packet will be dropped.
The packet will be forwarded via FastEthernet 0/0.
X The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.
The packet will be forwarded to the 192.168.1.3 next-hop address.


30  Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.)

This is a server response.
The UDP protocol is being used.
X The destination port indicates a Telnet session.
X The return segment will contain a source port of 23.
The next session originated from the client of this session will use the source port number 13358.


31  Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?

00-08-a3-b6-ce-46
X 198.133.219.25:80
http://www.cisco.com
C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0


32  During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?

two networks routing the packets
X two applications communicating the data
two hosts at either end of the communication
two nodes on the local network exchanging the frame


33  Refer to the exhibit. A student has wired each end of a CAT 5e cable as shown. What is the result? (Choose two.)

The cable is unusable and must be rewired.
The cable is suitable for use as a Gigabit Ethernet straight-through.
X The cable is suitable for use as a Fast Ethernet crossover.
The cable is suitable for use as a rollover cable.
The cable is suitable for use as a Gigabit Ethernet crossover.
X The cable is suitable for use between two 100 Mbps Auto-MDIX capable switches.


34  Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?

1
X 3
4
5
7


35  Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?

Host A was assigned a network address.
Host B was assigned a multicast address.
Host A and Host B belong to different networks.
X The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.


36  Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?

Connection 1 - rollover cable
Connection 2 - straight-through cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable

Connection 1 - crossover cable
Connection 2 - rollover cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable

Connection 1 - straight-through cable
Connection 2 - crossover cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable

X Connection 1 - straight-through cable
Connection 2 - crossover cable
Connection 3 - straight-through cable


Connection 1 - crossover cable
Connection 2 - straight-through cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable


37  Refer to the exhibit. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?

The host's default gateway.
The host's IP address.
X The host's primary domain name server.
The IP address of the website resolver1.mooki.local.
The IP address of the host's homepage.


38  Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)

This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
The source port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
The data is flowing from server to client.
X The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.
X The data listed is associated with the transport layer.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.


39  Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)

X 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
200.100.50.0 to 200.100.25.255
150.150.0.0 to 150.150.255.255
X 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
X 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
127.16.0.0 to 127.31.255.255


40  Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)

X physical addressing
encoding
routing
cabling
X media access control


41  Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?

0 to 255
X 0 to 1023
1024 to 49151
49152 to 65535


42  As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?

255.255.0.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
X 255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128


43  Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to the destination PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial packet from PC1?

X  London
Paris
Athens
Ankara
PC4


44  Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication?

Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
X Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.94


45  Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?

star
ring
point-to-point
X multiaccess
mesh


46  Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?

IP address incorrectly entered
network cables unplugged
X subnet mask incorrectly entered
network card failure


47  Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three.)

192.168.18.38
192.168.18.48
X 192.168.18.49
X 192.168.18.52
X 192.168.18.59
192.168.18.63


48  Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)

X The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.
X The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.
The network of this computer can have 126 hosts.
X The prefix of the computer address is /27.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is routable on the Internet.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is a broadcast address.


49  Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?

leaving host A
leaving ATL
X leaving Dallas
leaving NYC


50  Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?

application
presentation
session
transport
X network

Read more...

CCNA4 Module 7(90,5%)

1
Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?

Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.

The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.

Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the designed capabilities of the network.

Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or decrease available bandwidth.*****



2


Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?

show spanning-tree

show interfaces trunk********

show cdp neighbors

show interfaces

show ip interface brief



3
How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?

They select the functions that align with the business goals.******

They select the functions that occur at the network core.

They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.

They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.



4


Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have been added to the router configuration, what is the source of the problem?

The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.*******

The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.

The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.

The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet mask.

The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to reach the teacher PC subnet.



5


Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)

Provide redundant connections to all end users.

Add another core switch to increase redundancy.

Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.*******

Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core switches.

Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.*******



6


Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?

discarding

Forwarding****

learning

listening



7
A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design concept? (Choose two.)

The test network experiences real-world network traffic.*********

Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.

Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.*********

Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.

Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.



8


Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?

R1********

S1

R3

S2

R5

S3



9
Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?

Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.

Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.

Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.

Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.*****

Use the switchport access vlanvlan number command from interface configuration mode to remove the port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.



10


Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?

Add an enable password to the switch.

Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.*********

Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.

Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.



11


Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?

EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links. **********

EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.

EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.

EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.



12
In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?

the metric used for a particular route

the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface*********

the priority number given to the device for the election process

the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number

the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing



13
Which protocol allows a switch port to transition directly to the forwarding state after a failure is detected?

STP********

BGP

RSTP

HSRP



14
A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?

NBAR

a pilot network

a route summary

a network simulator********

a physical topology map



15


Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?

Test Description

Test Procedures

Design and Topology Diagram

Actual Results and Conclusions

Anticipated Results and Success Criteria***********



16
While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?

Appendix*******

Test Procedures

Test Description

Actual Results and Conclusions

Anticipated Results and Success Criteria



17


Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?

inbound on Fa0/0 of R3

outbound on Fa0/0 of R3

inbound on Fa0/1 of R3

outbound on Fa0/1 of R3*******

inbound on Fa0/1 of R2

outbound on S0/0 of R2



18


Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?

Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.********

Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.

Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.

Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics.



19
What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping network security?

a firewall at the network edge

port security at the access design layer**********

port security at the distribution design layer

IP access control lists at the access design layer



20


Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)

Switch1 is the root bridge.

Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.

Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.****

Based on the entries in the "Role" column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.****

Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree topology.



21
What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?

root

backup

alternate

Designated*******

Read more...

CCNA4 Module 9 (77%)

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 9 Scored 77%
1
Upon completion of a proposal, a network design team must sell their ideas to two key stakeholders. Who are these two stakeholders? (Choose two.)

Customers***

licensing boards

cabling contractors***

internal management

project implementation team



2
NetworkingCompany completes the installation of a network upgrade for a retail customer. All of the onsite tests complete successfully and the customer IT staff approves the results of the tests. The manager of the retail store contacts NetworkingCompany to inform the company that the store will not pay for the upgrade until a recently purchased software package is installed and tested on the network. Which two items that are contained in the proposal can the account manager refer to when discussing this issue with the store manager? (Choose two.)

the project scope***

the bill-of-material

the project timeline***

the terms and conditions

the business goals of the customer

the evaluation of the current network



3
Which proposal section describes the intended routing protocol, security mechanisms, and addressing for the planned network?

logical design***

physical design

executive summary

implementation plan

network requirements



4
In order to finalize a project proposal, an account manager of a networking company creates the terms and conditions section. What are two clauses that should be included in this section? (Choose two.)

cost summary***

installation steps

change order procedures***

problem resolution process

maintenance contract quotation



5
A company informs the account manager that the installation of a new edge router at the customer remote branch location cannot be done at the scheduled time because of a large order that the branch office needs to complete. As a result, the end date of the project must be adjusted to accommodate the additional time. What is the action should the account manager take?

Cancel the order for the new edge router.

Work with designer to redesign the branch network.

Instruct the technician to complete the install of the router at on the date in the contract.

Adjust the timeline documentation to show the company how the delay will affect the project completion date.***



6
Which statement describes a phased installation into an existing network?

A phased installation generally takes less time and expense than a green-field installation.

A phased installation is not suitable for large, multi-site network installations or upgrades.

A phased installation requires detailed planning in order to avoid disruption of user services.***

A phased installation involves building an entire replacement network and migrating users over to it.



7
The NetworkingCompany team is tasked to prepare an implementation schedule for a customer. It is determined that the new firewalls and wireless controllers that are specified in the design cannot be delivered and installed within the agreed upon time frame. The NetworkingCompany informs the customer of the problem. What two options can the NetworkingCompany team take to ensure the success of the project? (Choose two.)

plan to add additional staff and resources to shorten the installation time after the new equipment is delivered***

eliminate redundancy in the design to reduce the amount of equipment that is needed

renegotiate a new time frame with the customer to accommodate the delay***

delay the installation of the security devices and controllers until a later time

redesign the network to use only readily available equipment and software



8
A network installation team is assigned to replace all core switches in an existing data center. No other upgrades are planned. Which kind of installation is this?

a new installation

a fork-lift installation

a phased installation***

a green field installation



9
What two items are typically included in the executive summary of a proposal? (Choose two.)

project scope summary***

high-level implementation plan

quotes for all needed equipment

technical requirements for the design

emphasis on the benefits that meet the goals of the customer***



10
Included in a Bill of Materials (BOM) for a SOHO wired implementation is a Cisco 2811 router, Catalyst 2560 switch, four PCs, three laptops, and a networked printer. Wireless LAN capability will be implemented on this network. Which two equipment types must be added to the BOM to implement this request? (Choose two.)

DNS server

LAN switch ***

wireless NICs

DHCP server

wireless access points***



11
An upgraded version of the Cisco IOS has been purchased. However, the CD arrived damaged. How will this loss be covered?

a hardware warranty

a software warranty

the Cisco SMARTnet Service***

an additional service contract



12
The operation of a new branch location network is delayed because a VPN cannot be configured and established between the branch location and the main office. It is determined that the router at the main office does not have enough memory and does not have the correct Cisco IOS version image to support the VPN features. To prevent this delay, this problem should have been identified and corrected during which part of the design project?

the preparation of the business case

the prioritizing of the technical goals

the characterization of the existing network***

the implementation of the approved design



13
AAA Financial Services Company is performing implementation planning for a core switch upgrade. The company has 200 financial software programmers that work billable hours during the week. They have critical, scheduled money transfer transmissions that occur at hourly intervals every night. There are two, two-hour long IT maintenance windows scheduled for software upgrades, one on Saturday and one on Sunday. The bank advertises online banking as available 24 hours on business days and 21 hours on the weekends. However, a network upgrade that is necessary to replace some switches is expected to take four hours. Because of rack constraints, this time includes three hours to remove the old switches before the new switches can be installed and one hour to test the logical configuration. How should the implementation scheduling be handled?

Defer the software upgrades. Use the Saturday window to perform the hardware installation. Use the Sunday window to perform the logical testing.

Coordinate and publish a separate four-hour downtime during Friday to perform the complete switch installation and testing process. Use the Saturday and Sunday windows to correct any outage problems after the Friday window.

Coordinate and publish two, four-hour downtimes incorporating the published Saturday and Sunday windows. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working correctly with the old software. Use the Sunday window as a fallback scheduling period if there are problems necessitating backing out of the Saturday window.

Coordinate and publish an eight-hour downtime incorporating the Saturday window. This will allow four hours for installation and logical testing, one hour for troubleshooting and decision, and three hours to roll back to the previous configuration if the new switching cannot pass the logical testing. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working correctly with the old software. ****



14
A customer has just taken delivery of a Cisco 2811 router and Catalyst 3560 switch. Included with the purchase is the SMARTnet Service. Which two resources are included with SMARTnet Service? (Choose two.)

signature file updates

technical support from TAC***

maintenance releases for OS

software application major releases***

software application maintenance and minor releases



15
What service is provided Cisco standard warranty?

software application maintenance

replacement of defected hardware***

next business day delivery of replacement parts

access to the Cisco Technical Assistance Center (TAC) 24 hours a day, 7 days a week



16
What are two important guidelines when creating a slide presentation for a meeting with a customer? (Choose two.)

Use all capital letters on words and phrases when possible for added emphasis.

Provide varied background graphics to enhance viewer interest.

Use contrasting colors for background and text to aid visibility.***

Change fonts frequently to denote differences in subject matter.

Use bulleted text to lead the discussion.****



17
Which two statements describe factors that influence the layout of a proposal? (Choose two.)

Proposal layouts are required to use sans serif typefaces.

A specific proposal layout is followed when one is specified in the RFP. ***

A designer chooses the layout if a written RFP does not specify an outline.***

The software that is used to create the proposal dictates the proposal layouts.

Proposal layouts are required to use a format that is designed by the network engineer.



18
Which occurrence would indicate a failure of the design phase?

The incorrect model switches were ordered.

There is no customer signoff for task completion.

New requirements are identified after implementation begins.

The new network capacity is inadequate to support required traffic.***



19
Which two items will a systems engineer include in an implementation plan? (Choose two.)

references to design documents

the business goals of the customer***

diagrams of the existing traffic flows***

the steps to install and test the network

cost of each network device and component



20
A Cisco 1841 router has been purchased without an agreement for SMARTnet Service. What two items are guaranteed under the standard warranty? (Choose two.)

access to TAC

replacement of defective physical media***

advanced replacement of hardware parts

access to a renewable standard warranty contract

under normal use, replacement of defective hardware***

Read more...

CCNA 3:Module 1

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. A network technician is asked to examine an existing switched network. Following this examination, the technician makes recommendations for adding new switches where needed and replacing existing equipment that hampers performance. The technician is given a budget and asked to proceed. Which two pieces of information would be helpful in determining necessary port density for new switches? (Choose two.)
forwarding rate
traffic flow analysis
expected future growth
number of required core connections
number of hubs that are needed in the access layer to increase performance

2. Configuring communication between devices on different VLANs requires the use of which layer of the OSI model?
Layer 1
Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 5

3. What is the likely impact of moving a conventional company architecture to a completely converged network?
Local analog phone service can be completely outsourced to cost-effective providers.
The Ethernet VLAN structure is less complex.
A shared infrastructure is created resulting in a single network to manage.
QoS issues are greatly reduced.
There is less bandwidth competition between voice and video streams

4. Which hierarchical design model layer controls the flow of network traffic using policies and delineates broadcast domains by performing routing functions between virtual LANs (VLANs)?
application
access
distribution
network
core

5. A network administrator is selecting a switch that will operate at the network core. Which three features should the switch support for optimum network performance and reliability? (Choose three.)
port security
security policies
10 Gigabit Ethernet
quality of service (QoS)
hot-swappable hardware
Power over Ethernet (PoE)

6. Which three features are commonly supported at the distribution layer of the Cisco hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
security policies
Power over Ethernet
switch port security
quality of service
Layer 3 functionality
end user access to network

7. Which two features are supported at all three levels of the Cisco three-layer hierarchical model? (Choose two.)
Power over Ethernet
load balancing across redundant trunk links
redundant components
Quality of Service
link aggregation

8. Which two characteristics are associated with enterprise level switches? (Choose two.)
low port density
high forwarding rate
high latency level
support link aggregation
predefined number of ports

9. Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network?
core only
distribution and core
access and distribution
access, distribution, and core

10. For organizations that are implementing a voice over IP solution, what functionality should be enabled at all three layers of the hierarchical network?
Power over Ethernet
quality of service
switch port security
inter-VLAN routing

11. Which layer of the hierarchical design model provides a means of connecting devices to the network and controlling which devices are allowed to communicate on the network?
application
access
distribution
network
core

12. At which heirarchical layer are switches normally not required to process all ports at wire speed?
core layer
distribution layer
access layer
entry layer

13. Which layer of the OSI model does an access layer LAN switch use to make a forwarding decision?
Layer 1
Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4

14. Refer to the exhibit. What characteristic of hierarchical network designs is exhibited by having SW3 connected to both SW1 and Sw2?
scalability
security
redundancy
maintainability

15. Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is refered to as the high-speed backbone of the internetwork, where high availability and redundancy are critical?
access layer
core layer
data-link layer
distribution layer
network layer
physical layer

16. What statement best describes a modular switch?
a slim-line chassis
allows interconnection of switches on redundant backplane
defined physical characteristics
flexible characteristics

17. A technician is attempting to explain Cisco StackWise technology to a client that is setting up three stackable switches. Which explanation accurately describes StackWise technology?
StackWise technology allows up to eight ports to be bound together to increase available bandwidth.
StackWise technology allows the switch to deliver power to end devices by using existing Ethernet cabling.
StackWise technology allows the switch capabilities and ports to be expanded by the addition of line cards.
StackWise technology allows up to nine switches to be interconnected via the use of a fully redundant backplane.

18. Which hierarchical design characteristic would be recommended at both the core and distribution layers to protect the network in the case of a route failure?
PoE
redundancy
aggregation
access lists

19. Which feature supports higher throughput in switched networks by combining multiple switch ports?
convergence
redundant links
link aggregation
network diameter

20. Refer to the exhibit. Beginning with HR servers and workstations, a network engineer is designing a new security structure for the network. Which set of policies adheres to the hierarchical network model design principles?
Implement Layer 3 switching on S1 to reduce the packet processing load on D1 and D2. Install all security processing on S1 to reduce network traffic load.
Configure port security options on S1. Use Layer 3 access control features on D1 and D2 to limit access to the HR servers to just the HR subnet.
Move all HR assets out of the data center and connect them to S1. Use Layer 3 security functions on S1 to deny all traffic into and out of S1.
Perform all port access and Layer 3 security functions on C1.

Read more...

CCNA 3:Module 2

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. When a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not found in the switching table, what action will be taken by the switch to process the incoming frame?
The switch will request that the sending node resend the frame.
The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.
The switch will map the source MAC address to the port on which it was received.
The switch ends an acknowledgement frame to the source MAC of this incoming frame.

2. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are depicted in the network?
1
2
4
6
7
8

3. Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty?
SW1 drops the frame.
SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, except port Fa0/1.
SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, except Fa0/23 and Fa0/1.
SW1 uses the CDP protocol to synchronize the MAC tables on both switches and then forwards the frame to all ports on SW2.

4. If a network administrator enters these commands in global configuration mode on a switch, what will be the result?

Switch1(config-line)# line console 0

Switch1(config-line)# password cisco

Switch1(config-line)# login
to secure the console port with the password "cisco"
to deny access to the console port by specifying 0 lines are available
to gain access to line configuration mode by supplying the required password
to configure the privilege exec password that will be used for remote access

5. A network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several parameters. The switch responds with "% Incomplete command". The administrator cannot remember the missing parameters. What can the administrator do to get the parameter information?
append ? to the last parameter
append a space and then ? to the last parameter
use Ctrl-P to show a parameter list
use the Tab key to show which options are available

6. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will capture a copy of the frame when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?
workstation C
workstations B and C
workstations A, B, C, and the interfaces of the router
workstations B, C, D, E, F, and interfaces of the router

7. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)
The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.
Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.
The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.
After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.
If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.

8. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows partial output of the show running-config command. The enable password on this switch is "cisco." What can be determined from the output shown?
The enable password is encrypted by default.
An MD5 hashing algorithm was used on all encrypted passwords.
Any configured line mode passwords will be encrypted in this configuration.
This line represents most secure privileged EXEC mode password possible.

9. What are two ways to make a switch less vulnerable to attacks like MAC address flooding, CDP attacks, and Telnet attacks? (Choose two.)
Enable CDP on the switch.
Change passwords regularly.
Turn off unnecessary services.
Enable the HTTP server on the switch.
Use the enable password rather than the enable secret password.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

11. Where is the startup configuration stored?
DRAM
NVRAM
ROM
startup-config.text

12. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?
Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down.
Frames from Host 1 are dropped and no log message is sent.
Frames from Host 1 create a MAC address entry in the running-config.
Frames from Host 1 will remove all MAC address entries in the address table.

13. Which statement is true about the command banner login "Authorized personnel Only" issued on a switch?
The command is entered in privileged EXEC mode.
The command will cause the message Authorized personnel Only to display before a user logs in.
The command will generate the error message % Ambiguous command: "banner motd" ” to be displayed.
The command will cause the message End with the character “%” to be displayed after the command is entered into the switch.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator’s attempts to connect to Switch1 via Secure Shell are failing. What is most likely the problem?
incorrect vty lines configured
incompatible Secure Shell version
incorrect default gateway address
vty lines that are configured to allow only Telnet

15. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?
The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
A username/password combination is no longer needed to establish a secure remote connection to the switch.
The switch requires remote connections via proprietary client software.

16. Which two statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches are true? (Choose two.)
Layer 2 switches prevent broadcasts.
Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains.
Layer 2 switches route traffic between different networks.
Layer 2 switches decrease the number of broadcast domains.
Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which hosts will receive a broadcast frame sent from Host A?
hosts A and B
hosts B and C
hosts D and E
hosts A, B, and C
hosts B, C, D, and E
hosts A, B, C, D, E, and F

18. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password?
user EXEC mode
privileged EXEC mode
global configuration mode
interface configuration mode

19. Which two statements are true about EXEC mode passwords? (Choose two.)
The enable secret password command stores the configured password in plain text.
The enable secret password command provides better security than the enable password.
The enable password and enable secret password protect access to privileged EXEC mode.
The service password-encryption command is required to encrypt the enable secret password.
Best practices require both the enable password and enable secret password to be configured and used simultaneously.

20. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

Read more...

CCNA 3:Module 3

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. What statement about the 802.1q trunking protocol is true?
802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address.
802.1q does NOT require the FCS of the original frame to be recalculated.
802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.

2. Which two statements describe the benefits of VLANs? (Choose two.)
VLANs improve network performance by regulating flow control and window size.
VLANs enable switches to route packets to remote networks via VLAN ID filtering.
VLANs reduce network cost by reducing the number of physical ports required on switches.
VLANs improve network security by isolating users that have access to sensitive data and applications.
VLANs divide a network into smaller logical networks, resulting in lower susceptibility to broadcast storms.

3. What are two characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose two.)
VLAN1 should renamed.
VLAN 1 is the management VLAN.
All switch ports are members of VLAN1.
Only switch port 0/1 is assigned to VLAN1.
Links between switches must be members of VLAN1.

4. Refer to the exhibit. SW1 and SW2 are new switches being installed in the topology shown in the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 on switch SW1 has been configured with trunk mode “on”. Which statement is true about forming a trunk link between the switches SW1 and SW2?
Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 will negotiate to become a trunk link if it supports DTP.
Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 can only become a trunk link if statically configured as a trunk.
Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link if the neighboring interface is configured in nonegotiate mode.
Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link automatically with no consideration of the configuration on the neighboring interface.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Computer 1 sends a frame to computer 4. On which links along the path between computer 1 and computer 4 will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame?
A
A, B
A, B, D, G
A, D, F
C, E
C, E, F

6. The network administrator wants to separate hosts in Building A into two VLANs numbered 20 and 30. Which two statements are true concerning VLAN configuration? (Choose two.)
The VLANs may be named.
VLAN information is saved in the startup configuration.
Non-default VLANs created manually must use the extended range VLAN numbers.
The network administrator may create the VLANs in either global configuration mode or VLAN database mode.
Both VLANs may be named BUILDING_A to distinguish them from other VLANs in different geographical locations.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn regarding the switch that produced the output shown? (Choose two.)
The network administrator configured VLANs 1002-1005.
The VLANs are in the active state and are in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.
A FDDI trunk has been configured on this switch.
The command switchport access vlan 20 was entered in interface configuration mode for Fast Ethernet interface 0/1.
Devices attached to ports fa0/5 through fa0/8 cannot communicate with devices attached to ports fa0/9 through fa0/12 without the use of a Layer 3 device.

8. What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?
The ports cannot communicate with other ports.
The ports default back to the management VLAN.
The ports automatically become a part of VLAN1.
The ports remain a part of that VLAN until the switch is rebooted. They then become members of the management VLAN.

9. A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error?
VLAN 1 can never be deleted.
VLAN 1 can only be deleted by deleting the vlan.dat file.
VLAN 1 can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from it.
VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its responsibilities.

10. What is the effect of the switchport mode dynamic desirable command?
DTP cannot negotiate the trunk since the native VLAN is not the default VLAN.
The remote connected interface cannot negotiate a trunk unless it is also configured as dynamic desirable.
The connected devices dynamically determine when data for multiple VLANs must be transmitted across the link and bring the trunk up as needed.
A trunk link is formed if the remote connected device is configured with the switchport mode dynamic auto or switchport mode trunk commands.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited configurations do not allow the switches to form a trunk. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
Cisco switches only support the ISL trunking protocol.
The trunk cannot be negotiated with both ends set to auto.
By default, Switch1 will only allow VLAN 5 across the link.
A common native VLAN should have been configured on the switches.

12. Switch port fa0/1 was manually configured as a trunk, but now it will be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/1?
Disable DTP.
Delete any VLANs currently being trunked through port Fa0/1.
Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to default.
Enter the switchport mode access command in interface configuration mode.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Computer B is unable to communicate with computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The link between the switches is up but not trunked.
VLAN 3 is not an allowed VLAN to enter the trunk between the switches.
The router is not properly configured to route traffic between the VLANs.
Computer D does not have a proper address for the VLAN 3 address space.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2 and assigned hosts on the IP addresses of the VLAN in the 10.1.50.0/24 subnet range. Computer A can communicate with computer B, but not with computer C or computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
There is a native VLAN mismatch.
The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.
The router is not properly configured for inter-VLAN routing.
VLAN 50 is not allowed to entering the trunk between Switch1 and Switch2.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning interface Fa0/5?
The default native VLAN is being used.
The trunking mode is set to auto.
Trunking can occur with non-Cisco switches.
VLAN information about the interface encapsulates the Ethernet frames.

16. What statements describe how hosts on VLANs communicate?
Hosts on different VLANs use VTP to negotiate a trunk.
Hosts on different VLANs communicate through routers.
Hosts on different VLANs should be in the same IP network.
Hosts on different VLANs examine VLAN ID in the frame tagging to determine if the frame for their network.

17. Refer to the exhibit. How far is a broadcast frame that is sent by computer A propagated in the LAN domain?
none of the computers will receive the broadcast frame
computer A, computer B, computer C
computer A, computer D, computer G
computer B, computer C
computer D, computer G
computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E, computer F, computer G, computer H, computer I

18. What is a valid consideration for planning VLAN traffic across multiple switches?
Configuring interswitch connections as trunks will cause all hosts on any VLAN to receive broadcasts from the other VLANs.
A trunk connection is affected by broadcast storms on any particular VLAN that is carried by that trunk.
Restricting trunk connections between switches to a single VLAN will improve efficiency of port usage.
Carrying all required VLANs on a single access port will ensure proper traffic separation.

19. Which two statements about the 802.1q trunking protocol are true? (Choose two.)
802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address.
If 802.1q is used on a frame, the FCS must be recalculated.
802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.
802.1q allows the encapsulation of the original frame to identify the VLAN from which a frame originated.

20. What switch port modes will allow a switch to successfully form a trunking link if the neighboring switch port is in "dynamic desirable" mode?
dynamic desirable mode
on or dynamic desirable mode
on, auto, or dynamic desirable mode
on, auto, dynamic desirable, or nonegotiate mode

21. Refer to the exhibit. Company HR is adding PC4, a specialized application workstation, to a new company office. The company will add a switch, S3, connected via a trunk link to S2, another switch. For security reasons the new PC will reside in the HR VLAN, VLAN 10. The new office will use the 172.17.11.0/24 subnet. After installation, the existing PCs are unable to access shares on PC4. What is the likely cause?
The switch to switch connection must be configured as an access port to permit access to VLAN 10 on S3.
The new PC is on a different subnet so Fa0/2 on S3 must be configured as a trunk port.
PC4 must use the same subnet as the other HR VLAN PCs.
A single VLAN cannot span multiple switches.

22. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?
Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.
Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.

Read more...

CCNA 3:Module 4

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.
VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.

2. Which two statements are true about the implementation of VTP? (Choose two.)
Switches must be connected via trunks.
The VTP domain name is case sensitive.
Transparent mode switches cannot be configured with new VLANs.
The VTP password is mandatory and case sensitive.
Switches that use VTP must have the same switch name.

3. Which two statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.)
Transparent mode switches can create VLAN management information.
Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only.
Transparent mode switches pass any VLAN management information that they receive to other switches.
Transparent mode switches can adopt VLAN management changes that are received from other switches.
Transparent mode switches originate updates about the status of their VLANS and inform other switches about that status.

4. Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose three.)
revision number
domain name
pruning
mode
domain password
version number

5. What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?
A five-minute update timer has elapsed.
A port on the switch has been shutdown.
The switch is changed to the transparent mode.
A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Switches SW1 and SW2 are interconnected via a trunk link but failed to exchange VLAN information. The network administrator issued the show vtp status command to troubleshoot the problem. On the basis of the provided command output, what could be done to correct the problem?
Switch SW2 must be configured as a VTP client.
The switches must be interconnected via an access link.
The switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name.
Both switches must be configured with the same VTP revision number.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
If this switch is added to an established network, the other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain will consider their own VLAN information to be more recent than the VLAN information advertised by this switch.
This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
This switch is configured to allows the network manager to maximize bandwidth by restricting traffic to specific network devices.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Switch S1 is in VTP server mode. Switches S2 and S3 are in client mode. An administrator accidentally disconnects the cable from F0/1 on S2. What will the effect be on S2?
S2 will automatically transition to VTP transparent mode.
S2 will remove all VLANs from the VLAN database until the cable is reconnected.
S2 will retain the VLANs as of the latest known revision, but will lose the VLANs if it is reloaded.
S2 will automatically send a VTP request advertisement to 172.17.99.11 when the cable is reconnected.

9. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be learned from the output provided?
It verifies the configured VTP password.
It verifies the VTP domain is configured to use VTP version 2.
It verifies VTP advertisements are being exchanged.
It verifies the VTP domain name is V1.

10. How are VTP messages sent between switches in a domain?
Layer 2 broadcast
Layer 2 multicast
Layer 2 unicast
Layer 3 broadcast
Layer 3 multicast
Layer 3 unicast

11. What statement describes the default propagation of VLANs on a trunked link?
only VLAN 1
all VLANs
no VLANs
the native VLAN

12. Which two statements are true about VTP pruning? (Choose two.)
Pruning is enabled by default.
Pruning can only be configured on VTP servers.
Pruning must be configured on all VTP servers in the domain.
VLANs on VTP client-mode switches will not be pruned.
Pruning will prevent unnecessary flooding of broadcasts across trunks.

13. What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?
It suspends forwarding until a subset advertisement update arrives.
It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.
It increments the revision number and forwards it to other switches.
It deletes the VLANs not included in the summary advertisement.
It issues summary advertisements to advise other switches of status changes.

14. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network participate in the same VTP domain. What happens when the new switch SW2 with a default configuration and revision number of 0 is inserted in the existing VTP domain Lab_Network?
The switch operates as a VTP client.
The switch operates in VTP transparent mode.
The switch operates as a VTP server and deletes the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.
The switch operates as a VTP server, but does not impact the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.
The switch operates as a VTP server in the default VTP domain and does not affect the configuration in the existing VTP domain.

15. What are two features of VTP client mode operation? (Choose two.)
unable to add VLANs
can add VLANs of local significance
forward broadcasts out all ports with no respect to VLAN information
can only pass VLAN management information without adopting changes
can forward VLAN information to other switches in the same VTP domain

16. Refer to the exhibit. S2 was previously used in a lab environment and has been added to the production network in server mode. The lab and production networks use the same VTP domain name, so the network administrator made no configuration changes to S2 before adding it to the production network. The lab domain has a higher revision number. After S2 was added to the production network, many computers lost network connectivity. What will solve the problem?
Reset the revision number on S2 with either the delete VTP command or by changing the domain name and then changing it back.
Re-enter all appropriate VLANs, except VLAN 1, manually on Switch1 so that they propagate throughout the network.*
Change S1 to transparent VTP mode to reclaim all VLANs in vlan.dat and change back to server mode.
Change S2 to client mode so the VLANs will automatically propagate.

17. A network administrator is replacing a failed switch with a switch that was previously on the network. What precautionary step should the administrator take on the replacement switch to avoid incorrect VLAN information from propagating through the network?
Enable VTP pruning.
Change the VTP domain name.
Change the VTP mode to client.
Change all the interfaces on the switch to access ports.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches that are shown in the exhibit. What are two possible explanations for this? (Choose two.)
Switch1 is in client mode.
Switch2 is in server mode.
Switch2 is in transparent mode.
Switch1 is in a different management domain.
Switch1 has end devices that are connected to the ports.
Switch1 is using VTP version 1, and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.

19. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the VTP domain are new. Switch SW1 is configured as a VTP server, switches SW2 and SW4 are configured as VTP clients, and switch SW3 is configured in VTP transparent mode. Which switch or switches receive VTP updates and synchronize their VLAN configuration based on those updates?
All switches receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.
Only switch SW2 receives updates and synchronizes VLAN information.
Only switches SW3 and SW4 receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.
SW3 and SW4 receive updates, but only switch SW4 synchronizes VLAN information.

20. Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?
VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.
VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
VTP allows a switch to be configured to belong to more than one VTP domain.
VTP dynamically communicates VLAN changes to all switches in the same VTP domain.

Read more...

CCNA 3:Module 5

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)
The root switch is the switch with the highest speed ports.
Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and identity.
All trunking ports are designated and not blocked.
Root switches have all ports set as root ports.
Non-root switches each have only one root port.

2. Which two statements describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.
They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
Only the root bridge will send out a BID.
They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.
The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.

3. In which two ways is the information that is contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)
to negotiate a trunk between switches
to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
to identify the shortest path to the root bridge
to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree

4. Which two actions does an RSTP edge port take if it receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
immediately loses its edge status
inhibits the generation of a TCN
goes immediately to a learning state
disables itself
becomes a normal spanning-tree port

5. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network have empty MAC tables. STP has been disabled on the switches in the network. How will a broadcast frame that is sent by host PC1 be handled on the network?
Switch SW1 will block the broadcast and drop the frame.
Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. This will generate an endless loop in the network.
Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to host PC1.
Switch SW1 will forward the traffic out all switch ports except the originating port as a unicast frame. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to switch SW1.

6. Which two items are true regarding the spanning-tree portfast command? (Choose two.)
PortFast is Cisco proprietary.
PortFast can negatively effect DHCP services.
PortFast is used to more quickly prevent and eliminate bridging loops.
Enabling PortFast on trunks that connect to other switches improves convergence.
If an access port is configured with PortFast, it immediately transitions from a blocking to a forwarding state.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?
Router_1 will drop the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.
Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.
The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.

8. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
election of the root bridge
blocking of the non-designated ports
selection of the designated trunk port
determination of the designated port for each segment

9. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
Configure all the interfaces on the switch as the static root ports.
Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.
Assign a lower IP address to the switch than that of the other switches in the network.
Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The spanning-tree port priority of each interface is at the default setting. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. What is the effect of the command?
Spanning tree blocks Gi0/1 on S3.
Gi0/2 on S3 transitions to a root port.
Port priority makes Gi0/2 on S1 a root port.
S4 is already the root bridge, so there are no port changes.

11. What two features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose two.)
the max-age timer
the spanning-tree hold down timer
the forward delay
the spanning-tree path cost
the blocking delay

12. In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?
blocking
Learning
disabling
listening
forwarding

13. Which three statements are accurate regarding RSTP and STP? (Choose three.)
RSTP uses a faster algorithm to determine root ports.
RSTP introduced the extended system ID to allow for more than 4096 VLANs.
Both RSTP and STP use the portfast command to allow ports to immediately transition to forwarding state.
Like STP PortFast, an RSTP edge port that receives a BPDU loses its edge port status immediately and becomes a normal spanning-tree port.
Configuration commands to establish primary and secondary root bridges are identical for STP and RSTP.
Because of the format of the BPDU packet, RSTP is backward compatible with STP.

14. What two elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)
one root bridge per network
all non-designated ports forwarding
one root port per non-root bridge
multiple designated ports per segment
one designated port per network

15. Which statement or set of paired statements correctly compares STP with RSTP?
STP and RSTP use the same BPDU format.
STP specifies backup ports. RSTP has only root ports, alternate ports, and designated ports.
STP port states are independent of port roles. RSTP ties together the port state and port role.
STP waits for the network to converge before placing ports into forwarding state. RSTP places alternate ports into forwarding state immediately.

16. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output shown?
Two hosts communicating between ports Fa0/2 and Fa0/4 have a cost of 38.
The priority was statically configured to identify the root.
STP is disabled on this switch.
The timers have been altered to reduce convergence time.

17. Which two criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)
bridge priority
switching speed
number of ports
base MAC address
switch location
memory size

18. What three link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
Shared
end-to-end
edge-type
boundary-type
point-to-many
point-to-point

19. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) role is assigned to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
alternate
backup
Designated
root

20. When PVST+ was developed, the Bridge ID was modified to include which information?
bridge priority
MAC address
protocol
VLAN ID

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